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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he received tetanus toxoid 8 years ago. What should be done for him now?

      Your Answer: Human immunoglobulin only

      Explanation:

      Only immunoglobulins are required, as he is already immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      91.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

    Recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

      Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing.

      Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave's disease?

      Your Answer: Increased pa(CO2)

      Correct Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite.
    Thyrotoxicosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite.
      Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed.
      Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves' disease?

      Your Answer: Normal serum TSH concentration

      Correct Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
      – Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
      – Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
      – Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
      – Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti-sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
      The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
      – The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      93.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      184.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

    Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
    Potassium...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

      Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Urine sodium 2 mmol/L
      Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI is noted to be 33 and urine culture is negative for nitrates. Which of the following investigations would be done next in order to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from diabetes mellitus. Diagnosis of DM involves checking for elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old female patient has the following signs and symptoms: smooth goitre, lid...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient has the following signs and symptoms: smooth goitre, lid lag and bilateral exophthalmos with puffy eyelids and conjunctival injections. She has a history of thyrotoxicosis but wants to fall pregnant. What would be the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer: 18m of Propylthiouracil (PTU) alone

      Explanation:

      Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a safe choice for a woman that is planning a pregnancy because it does not have the teratogenic effects as carbimazole does. Methimazole (MMI) and propylthiouracil (PTU) are the standard anti-thyroid drugs used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy. Carbimazole can cause spina bifida, CV malformations as well as hypospadia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made.
      What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female presents with diarrhoea and 8 kg weight loss over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with diarrhoea and 8 kg weight loss over the last 3 months. She has also experienced amenorrhea for the past 12 weeks. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: 24 hours urinary VMA (Vanillyl mandelic Acid)

      Correct Answer: Thyroid Function Test

      Explanation:

      Weight loss is most commonly linked to hyperthyroidism. An overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism) or underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) can cause menstrual irregularities, including amenorrhea. In this scenario, we would carry out thyroid function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?

      Your Answer: Metformin should always be co-prescribed

      Correct Answer: Do not cause weight gain

      Explanation:

      Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
      Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      10.4
      Seconds

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Endocrine System & Metabolism (5/10) 50%
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