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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.
Which of these statements about anaphylaxis is true?Your Answer: Mast cell degranulation occurs due to massive potassium influx into the cells
Correct Answer: The immunoglobulin-antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells.
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
It is IgE mediated.
It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.
Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation.
The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of the following clinical symptoms should you anticipate seeing in a patient who had a pelvic and right leg injury as well as femoral nerve damage?
Your Answer: Loss of sensation over the anterior thigh
Explanation:The femoral nerve runs down the front of the leg from the pelvis. It gives the front of the thigh and a portion of the lower leg sensation.
Extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the thigh at the hip are produced by muscles that is primarily innervated by the femoral nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 3
Correct
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A 34-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department by the paramedics after a road traffic accident. After a quick triage, you establish that he will need to be intubated, and you ask for some ketamine to be prepared.
Which one of the following options regarding this drug is true?Your Answer: It is the only anaesthetic agent available that has analgesic, hypnotic, and amnesic properties
Explanation:Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic with analgesic, amnesic, and hypnotic effects. It is the only anaesthetic agent which causes all three of these effects.
Ketamine exerts its action by non-competitive antagonism at the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor. Due to its analgesic property, Ketamine is given so that patients do not retain memories of short term procedures. Ketamine is used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia in general surgery and for treating burn wounds, battlefield injuries, and children who cannot tolerate other anaesthetic or analgesic agents.
It can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes. Ketamine causes cardiac stimulation by increasing the sympathetic tone. The major side effect is increased intracranial pressure as an increase in the sympathetic tone causes vasoconstriction and an increase in the MAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old female, who recently returned from a trip to Bangladesh, presents to the infectious diseases clinic with complaints of productive cough with blood-stained sputum, night sweats, and weight loss for the past one month. Based on the history and examination findings, you suspect pulmonary tuberculosis.
Which ONE of the following investigations is most appropriate to make a diagnosis of active tuberculosis?Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Sputum for acid-fast bacilli smear
Explanation:Multiple investigations may be done to establish a diagnosis of active tuberculosis. In this case, sputum for acid-fast bacilli would be the best option as it can be done immediately, give fast results, and promptly initiate treatment. Three-morning sputum samples are collected and tested for acid-fast bacilli using gram staining.
Blood culture would yield results in tuberculous bacteraemia and would be less sensitive than sputum testing.
A chest X-ray would not differentiate active tuberculosis from an old infection in which the Ghon complex has formed, and the body’s immune reaction contains the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.
Mantoux test shows the presence of antibodies to tuberculosis and may be positive if the patient has had a previous infection or been vaccinated against tuberculosis.
A CT chest would also be unable to differentiate between an active infection and the findings of old tuberculosis infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 5
Correct
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Regarding the glomerular filtration barrier, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: The main factor determining whether a substance is filtered or not is molecular weight.
Explanation:Molecular weight is the main factor in determining whether a substance is filtered or not – molecules < 7 kDa in molecular weight are filtered freely e.g. glucose, amino acids, urea, ions but larger molecules are increasingly restricted up to 70 kDa, above which filtration is insignificant. Negatively charged molecules are further restricted, as they are repelled by negative charges, particularly in the basement membrane. Albumin has a molecular weight of 69 kDa and is negatively charged, thus only very small amounts are filtered (and all of the filtered albumin is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule), whereas small molecules such as ions, glucose, amino acids and urea pass the filter without hindrance. This means that ultrafiltrate is virtually protein free, but otherwise has an identical composition of that of plasma. The epithelial lining of the Bowman's capsule consists of a single layer of cells called podocytes. The glomerular capillary endothelium is perforated by pores (fenestrations) which allow plasma components with a molecular weight of < 70 kDa to pass freely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 6
Correct
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Question 7
Correct
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The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve?
Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve
Explanation:The extensor digitorum longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L5, S1), a branch of the common fibular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 8
Correct
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A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a ladder. Significant bruising was found to be overlying his latissimus dorsi muscle.
Which of the following statements regarding the latissimus dorsi muscle is considered correct?Your Answer: It raises the body towards the arm during climbing
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi muscle is a broad, flat muscle that occupies the majority of the lower posterior thorax. The muscle’s primary function is of the upper extremity but is also considered to be a respiratory accessory muscle.
Latissimus dorsi is a climbing muscle. With the arms fixed above the head, it can raise the trunk upwards, together with the help of pectoralis major.
Functionally, the latissimus dorsi muscle belongs to the muscles of the scapular motion. This muscle is able to pull the inferior angle of the scapula in various directions, producing movements on the shoulder joint (internal rotation, adduction and extension of the arm). It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 – C8) from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, which enters the muscle on its deep surface.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 9
Correct
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A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection and is currently under investigation.
Which of the following markers is considered the earliest indicator of acute infection in acute Hepatitis B?Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag
Explanation:HBsAg is the serological hallmark of HBV infection. After an acute exposure to HBV, HBsAg appears in serum within 1 to 10 weeks. Persistence of this marker for more than 6 months implies chronic HBV infection.
Anti-HBs is known as a neutralizing antibody, and confers long-term immunity. In patients with acquired immunity through vaccination, anti-HBs is the only serological marker detected in serum.
HBcAg is an intracellular presence in infected hepatocyte, thus it is not identified in the serum. During acute infection, anti-HBc IgM and IgG emerges 1–2 weeks after the presence of HBsAg along with raised serum aminotransferase and symptoms. After 6 months of acute infection, anti-HBc IgM wears off. Anti-HBc IgG continues to detect in both patients with resolved HBV infection and chronic hepatitis B.
Hepatitis D virus, also known as the delta hepatitis virus, is a defective ssRNA virus that requires HBV for replication. The infection can occur in one of two clinical forms, co-infection or superinfection. In a co-infection, the patient is simultaneously infected with HBV and HDV. In a superinfection, an HDV infection develops in a patient with a chronic HBV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, which is a peptide hormone. It is important for maintaining water and electrolyte balance, as well helping control arterial pressure.
To have an effect on blood arteries, ADH binds to which of the following receptors?Your Answer: V 2 receptor
Correct Answer: V 1 receptor
Explanation:ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is a hormone that regulates water and electrolyte balance. It is released in response to a variety of events, the most important of which are higher plasma osmolality or lower blood pressure. ADH increases plasma volume and blood pressure via acting on the kidneys and peripheral vasculature.
It causes vasoconstriction by binding to peripheral V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle via the IP3 signal transduction and Rho-kinase pathways. The systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure rise as a result. High levels of ADH appear to be required for this to have a major impact on arterial pressure, such as in hypovolaemic shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with multiple myeloma presents with complaints of abdominal pain and malaise. A series of blood tests is done and his calcium level is 2.96 mmol/l.
What effect will this blood test result have on gastric secretions?
Your Answer: Inhibit the release of histamine
Correct Answer: Stimulate the release of gastrin
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia stimulates the release of gastrin from the G-cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, the duodenum and the pancreas.
Gastrin is also released in response to:
Stomach distension
Vagal stimulation
The presence of amino acids.Gastrin release is inhibited by the presence of acid and somatostatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: It occurs during forced expiration.
Explanation:Dynamic compression occurs because as the expiratory muscles contract during forced expiration, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume). Physiologically this is important as a completely deflated lung with collapsed alveoli requires significantly more energy to inflate. Dynamic compression does not occur in normal expiration because the intrapleural pressure is negative throughout the whole cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases in the mixture:
Your Answer: Boyle's law
Correct Answer: Dalton's law
Explanation:Dalton’s law states that when two or more gases, which do not react chemically, are present in the same container, the total pressure is the sum of the partial pressures of each gas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Correct
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Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily implicated in which of the following conditions:
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic meningitis
Explanation:Cryptococcus neoformans typically causes a chronic lymphocytic meningitis in immunosuppressed patients or those with intense exposure e.g. pigeon fanciers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.
Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?Your Answer: Venturi mask
Explanation:In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.
Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%.
The ideal mask is a Venturi mask.The other mask are not ideal for initial use
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus. Which antibodies will indicate a positive result of systemic lupus erythematosus?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-nuclear antibodies
Explanation:Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are autoantibodies to the cells’ nucleus.
The ANA test is the most sensitive diagnostic test for verifying the disease’s diagnosis.
Other autoantibodies that may be found in SLE patients include rheumatoid factor, antiphospholipid antibodies, and antimitochondrial antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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Question 17
Correct
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You are treating a patient with a Clostridium difficile infection. His condition was found to be antibiotic-associated. Which of the following pieces of advice on preventing the spread of this disease should you give this patient?
Your Answer: Washing hands with soap and water
Explanation:Clostridium difficile (C. diff) can cause colitis, or inflammation of the colon.
To prevent its spread, one should practice good hand hygiene, regularly clean areas of the home that may become contaminated with C. difficile, practice good hand hygiene, and clean surfaces, spills, and accidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 18
Correct
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A 24-year-old waiter cuts his hand on a dropped plate that smashed and damages the nerve that innervates opponens digiti minimi.
The opponens digiti minimi muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: The deep branch of the ulnar nerve
Explanation:Opponens digiti minimi is a triangular-shaped muscle in the hand that forms part of the hypothenar eminence. It originates from the hook of the hamate bone and the flexor retinaculum and inserts into the medial border of the 5thmetacarpal.
Opponens digiti minimi is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery.
Opponens digiti minimi draws the fifth metacarpal bone anteriorly and rotates it, bringing the fifth digiti into opposition with the thumb. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?Your Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Explanation:This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)
2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)
3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)
4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L).Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults.
Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults.
In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine.
Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A newborn baby girl is delivered vaginally to a 19-year old female, however with complications due to cephalopelvic disproportion. Upon examination by the attending paediatrician, there is a notable 'claw hand' deformity of the left, and sensory loss of the ulnar aspect of the left distal upper extremity.
What is the most probable diagnosis of the case above?Your Answer: Erb’s palsy
Correct Answer: Klumpke’s palsy
Explanation:Klumpke palsy, named after Augusta Dejerine-Klumpke, is a neuropathy involving the lower brachial plexus. In contrast, the more common Erb–Duchenne palsy involves the more cephalic portion of the brachial plexus C5 to C6. The brachial plexus is a bundle of individual nerves that exit between the anterior and middle scalene muscles in the anterior lateral and basal portion of the neck. Although the most common anatomical presentation of the brachial plexus is between the anterior and middle scalene, there are variations, with the most common being penetration of the anterior scalene. The main mechanism of injury to the lower brachial plexus is hyper-abduction traction, and depending on the intensity, it will lead to signs and symptoms consistent with a neurological insult.
The most common aetiology resulting in Klumpke palsy is a hyper-abduction trauma to the arm that has enough intensity to traction the lower brachial plexus. Trauma during birth can cause brachial plexus injuries, but again hyper-abduction and traction forces to the upper extremity are usually present.
The history presented by the patient usually depicts a long axis hyper-abduction traction injury with high amplitude and velocity. The typical patient presentation is a decrease of sensation along the medial aspect of the distal upper extremity along the C8 and T1 dermatome. The patient might also present myotome findings that can range from decreasing muscular strength to muscular atrophy and positional deformity. For example, if the neurological damage has led to muscular atrophy and tightening, the patient may present with a claw hand. This deformity presents a finger and wrist flexion. The patient may also describe the severe pain that starts at the neck and travels down the medial portion of the arm. One other sign of a lower brachial plexus injury is Horner syndrome; because of its approximation to the T1 nerve root, it may damage the cephalic sympathetic chain. If this happens, the patient will develop ipsilateral ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 21
Correct
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What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:
Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia
Explanation:A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 22
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presents with retrosternal central chest pain that she has been complaining about for the past two days. Upon deep inspiration and while lying flat, the pain worsens but relieved by sitting forwards. The pain radiates to both of her shoulders. The result of her ECG shows widespread concave ST-elevation and PR depression. A diagnosis of pericarditis is suspected.
Which of the following nerves is responsible for the pattern of her pain?Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardial sac and is the most common pathologic process involving the pericardium. Frequently, pericardial inflammation can be accompanied by increased fluid accumulation within the pericardial sac forming a pericardial effusion, which may be serous, hemorrhagic or purulent depending on aetiology.
The classic presentation is with chest pain that is central, severe, pleuritic (worse on deep inspiration) and positional (improved by sitting up and leaning forward). The pain may also be radiating and may involve the ridges of the trapezius muscle if the phrenic nerve is inflamed as it traverses the pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially to the:
Your Answer: Deep inguinal nodes
Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes
Explanation:Above the pectinate line, the anal canal drains to the internal iliac lymph nodes which subsequently drain to the lumbar (para-aortic) nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with complaints of a rash and fever that have been present for the past 3 days. Upon history taking and observation, it was noted that the rash started behind the ears and then spread to the face and body. The presence of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, and conjunctivitis was also observed.
What is most likely the diagnosis of the case presented above?Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:The measles virus is an enveloped virus classified in the genus
Morbillivirus.
Measles is highly contagious and spreads by aerosol. Initial replication takes place in the mucosal cells of the respiratory tract; measles virus then replicates in the local lymph nodes and spreads systemically. The virus circulates in the T and B cells and monocytes, until eventually the lungs, gut, bile duct, bladder, skin, and lymphatic organs are involved. After an incubation period of 7 to 10 days, there is an abrupt onset, with symptoms of sneezing, runny nose and cough, red eyes, and rapidly rising fever. About 2 to 3 days later, a maculopapular rash appears on the head and trunk. Koplik spots, lesions on the oral mucosa consisting of irregular red spots, with a bluish white speck in the centre, generally appear 2 to 3 days before the rash and are diagnostic.Measles is easily diagnosed clinically, so few requests for laboratory identification are made. The virus is fragile and must be handled carefully. The specimens of choice are from the nasopharynx and urine, but the virus can only be recovered from these sources in the early stages of infection. The virus grows on PMK cells, causing the formation of distinctive spindle-shaped or multinucleated cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus:
Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam
Explanation:First-line treatment is with intravenous lorazepam if available. Intravenous diazepam is effective but it carries a high risk of thrombophlebitis so should only be used if intravenous lorazepam is not immediately available. Absorption of diazepam from intramuscular injection or from suppositories is too slow for treatment of status epilepticus. When facilities for resuscitation are not immediately available or if unable to secure immediate intravenous access, diazepam can be administered as a rectal solution or midazolam oromucosal solution can be given into the buccal cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration?
Your Answer: Refractory ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest
Explanation:IV Lidocaine is indicated in Ventricular Arrhythmias or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (after defibrillation, attempted CPR, and vasopressor administration)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?
Your Answer: Zygomatic branch
Explanation:The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland.
1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.
2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.
3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth.
4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin.
5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 28
Correct
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A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.
Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Sternohyoid
Explanation:The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerveThe posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
Contents:
Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen?
Your Answer: Chief cells
Explanation:The gastric chief cells in the stomach wall releases pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is a proenzyme. It mixes with hydrochloric acid in the stomach and is converted to pepsin. Pepsin breaks down proteins into peptides aiding protein digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 30
Correct
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What is the most common application of Nitrates?
Your Answer: Angina
Explanation:In patients with exertional stable angina, nitrates improve exercise tolerance, time to onset of angina, and ST-segment depression during exercise testing. In combination with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers, nitrates produce greater anti-anginal and anti-ischemic effects.
While they act as vasodilators, coronary vasodilators, and modest arteriolar dilators, the primary anti ischemic effect of nitrates is to decrease myocardial oxygen demand by producing systemic vasodilation more than coronary vasodilation. This systemic vasodilation reduces left ventricular systolic wall stress. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
