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Question 1
Incorrect
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A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Arteriovenous malformation
Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant has a pulse of 110 bpm, grimaces upon nasal stimulation and has good muscle tone. Moreover, the colour of the infant is pink except for the extremities, which are blueish. What is the infants APGAR score?
Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 7
Explanation:Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. The 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb. More specifically, five components are assessed and these are the appearance (A), the pulse (P), the grimace (G), the activity (A) and the respiration (R). A normal APGAR score is considered to be 10 points, 2 points given for each normal component. In this case, 1 point is given for the appearance due to the bluish extremities, 2 points are given for the pulse which is higher than 100 bpm, 1 point is given for the grimacing, 2 points are given for the activity due to the good muscle tone and 1 point is given for the respiration due to gasping. Total score is 7 points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?
Your Answer: Pulmonary hypoplasia
Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease
Explanation:Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?
Your Answer: 1200ml
Correct Answer: 600ml
Explanation:In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Intramuscular vitamin K only
Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?
Your Answer: Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: Interleukin-1
Explanation:Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)
Explanation:Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Correct Answer: Ganciclovir
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress syndrome (SDLD)?
Your Answer: Caesarean section
Correct Answer: Maternal hypertension
Explanation:Insufficient surfactant production in premature infants leads to respiratory distress syndrome or surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), characterized by structurally immature lungs. There are many risk factors of this disease, some of them include male gender, caesarean section, infants of diabetic mothers, being the second born of the premature twins, perinatal asphyxia, sepsis, and hypothermia. Maternal hypertension is not a recognized risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome| instead, pregnancy-induced hypertension and chronic maternal hypertension are the protective factors against this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?
Your Answer: 5× inflation breaths
Explanation:Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?
Your Answer: USS
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Correct
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Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?
Your Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic
Explanation:A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Hypoxia at birth
Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?
Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound
Explanation:The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?
Your Answer: The ductus venosus stays open in the foetus due to low PaO2 and circulating prostaglandins
Correct Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium
Explanation:In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer: Increase delta P
Explanation:The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 19
Correct
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Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Spherocytosis
Explanation:Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is a common clinical condition and can be categorized as conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from obstructive or hepatocellular causes mainly. The causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include inborn errors of metabolism like galactosemia and aminoaciduria, obstruction from choledochal cysts, and biliary atresia. Long term TPN also leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Spherocytosis is a hereditary condition belonging to the group of haemolytic anaemias, resulting from plasma membrane protein deficiency. This defect of the RBC plasma membrane decreases their life span, making them osmotically fragile and prone to haemolysis. This leads to an increase in the unconjugated bilirubin levels, with a risk of developing kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring of the legs, presents with delayed walking. She was born by breech delivery. Clinical examination reveals absence of fever and no dysmorphism. Although the limbs look symmetrical and equal, the right leg seems to be shorter. The girl is otherwise healthy. Neurological examination reveals hypotonia with normal reflexes and power. The mother confirms there is no history of myelomeningocele, cerebral palsy, or birth asphyxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital dislocation of the hip
Explanation:In this particular case, the symptoms and signs are suggestive for congenital dislocation of the hip. There are several risk factors present including, a breech delivery, female gender (female:male = 6:1) and oligohydramnios. It is also more common in the left hip than the right.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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