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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve lesion

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother with a history of a swelling on the right side of his neck that is extending from the angle of mouth to the middle 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid muscle. On examination the swelling was on the anterolateral aspect of the muscle and was found to be brilliantly transilluminant. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Branchial cyst

      Correct Answer: Lymphangioma

      Explanation:

      A lymphangioma is a swelling or mass that occurs mainly in the head, neck, and mouth. Lymphangiomas are the result of a congenital condition and are usually apparent at birth, or at least by the time a person is 2 years old. It is rare in adult population and when detected, it can be treated with surgical excision. Branchial cyst in most cases does not transilluminate which lymphangioma does.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Loop diuretic therapy

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 22

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Check paracetamol level now

      Correct Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time

      Explanation:

      According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose...

    Incorrect

    • The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose pre-test odds were 2 tests positiveThe following is most accurate:

      Your Answer: The negative likelihood ratio for the test must be known to interpret the results in this patient.

      Correct Answer: Their prior odds of having the disease are now 6

      Explanation:

      Before the test, the patient was likely to have the disease being tested for. Their pre test odds were 2, making them twice as likely to have the disease. After testing positive, their pretest odds of 2 and the likelihood ratio of 3 are multiplied to produce 6 as the post test odds. The patient is now 6 times as likely to have the disease after the test. Likelihood ratios above 10 or below 0.1 are strong evidence to rule in and rule out a diagnosis. The negative likelihood ratio is not known here, but does not subtract from the interpretation of the outcomes in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 15 cmH2O

      Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl presents with bruise-like painful lumps on her lower legs after...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with bruise-like painful lumps on her lower legs after a sore throat. Which of the following is expected in her case?

      Your Answer: The condition may take 6-12 weeks to resolve

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. It is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to a variety of antigens| circulating immune complexes have not been found in idiopathic or uncomplicated cases but may be demonstrated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is a streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adultsIn most patients, erythema nodosum is a self-limited disease and requires only symptomatic relief using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), cool wet compresses, elevation, and bed rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which is true regarding XYY syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true regarding XYY syndrome?

      Your Answer: Affected individuals are infertile

      Correct Answer: Affected individuals are usually asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      47,XYY syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of the Y chromosome in each of a male’s cells. Although many males with this condition are taller than average, the chromosomal change sometimes causes no unusual physical features. Most males with 47,XYY syndrome have normal production of the male sex hormone testosterone and normal sexual development, and they are usually able to father children.47,XYY syndrome is associated with an increased risk of learning disabilities and delayed development of speech and language skills. Affected boys can have delayed development of motor skills or hypotonia.Other signs and symptoms of this condition include hand tremors or other involuntary movements (motor tics), seizures, and asthma. Males with 47,XYY syndrome have an increased risk of behavioural, social, and emotional difficulties compared with their unaffected peers. These problems include attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)| depression| anxiety| and autism spectrum disorder.Physical features related to 47,XYY syndrome can include increased belly fat, macrocephaly, macrodontia, flat feet (pes planus), fifth fingers that curve inward (clinodactyly), widely spaced eyes (ocular hypertelorism), and scoliosis. These characteristics vary widely among affected boys and men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient synovitis of the hip

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?

      Your Answer: Older maternal age

      Correct Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P – palpable massP – peristalsisP – projectile vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered from recurrent epistaxis for the past 2 weeks. Renal biopsy showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear

      Correct Answer: Antiproteinase 3

      Explanation:

      This patient has pulmonary renal syndrome which is most commonly due to an ANCA positive vasculitis. The history of recurrent epistaxis makes Wegener’s granulomatosis the most probable diagnosis. Wegener’s granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and idiopathic pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN) are strongly associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCAs) directed against either proteinase 3 (anti-PR3) or myeloperoxidase (anti-MPO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Doing up buttons unaided

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestones:Social and Emotional:- Copies adults and friends – Shows affection for friends without prompting – Takes turns in games – Shows concern for crying friend – Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” – Shows a wide range of emotions – Separates easily from mom and dad – May get upset with major changes in routine- Dresses and undresses self Language/Communication- Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps – Can name most familiar things – Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” – Says first name, age, and sex- Names a friend – Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) – Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time – Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentencesCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts – Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people – Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces – Understands what “two” means – Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon – Turns book pages one at a time – Builds towers of more than 6 blocks – Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handleMovement/Physical Development- Climbs well – Runs easily – Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) – Walks up and downstairs, one foot on each stepDoing up buttons is a skill more usually seen in 5-year-olds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at the age of 2 months?

      Your Answer: The infant is not expected to get bored if not kept engaged

      Correct Answer: The infant is not expected to mirror facial expressions like smiling

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones at the age of 2 months are as follows:Social and Emotional:- Begins to smile at people – Can briefly calm herself (may bring hands to mouth and suck on hand)- Tries to look at the parents Language/Communication:- Coos, makes gurgling sounds – Turns head toward sounds Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):- Pays attention to faces – Begins to follow things with eyes and recognize people at a distance – Begins to act bored (cries, fussy) if an activity doesn’t changeMovement/Physical Development:- Can hold head up and begins to push up when lying on tummy – Makes smoother movements with arms and legs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound....

    Correct

    • A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Correct Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Noonan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is a condition that affects many areas of the body. It is characterized by mildly unusual facial features, short stature, heart defects, bleeding problems, skeletal malformations, and many other signs and symptoms.People with Noonan syndrome have distinctive facial features such as a deep groove in the area between the nose and mouth (philtrum), widely spaced eyes that are usually pale blue or blue-green in colour, and low-set ears that are rotated backwards. Affected individuals may have a high-arched palate, poor teeth alignment, and micrognathia. Many children with Noonan syndrome have a short neck, and both children and adults may have excess neck skin (also called webbing) and a low hairline at the back of the neck.Between 50 and 70 % of individuals with Noonan syndrome have short stature. At birth, they are usually a normal length and weight, but growth slows over time. Individuals with Noonan syndrome often have either a pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum. Some affected people may also have scoliosis.Most people with Noonan syndrome have some form of critical congenital heart disease. The most common heart defect in these individuals is pulmonary valve stenosis. Some have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.A variety of bleeding disorders have been associated with Noonan syndrome. Some affected individuals have excessive bruising, nosebleeds, or prolonged bleeding following injury or surgery. Rarely, women with Noonan syndrome who have a bleeding disorder have excessive bleeding during menstruation (menorrhagia) or childbirth.Adolescent males with Noonan syndrome typically experience delayed puberty. They go through puberty starting at age 13 or 14 and have a reduced pubertal growth spurt that results in shortened stature. Most males with Noonan syndrome have undescended testes (cryptorchidism), which may contribute to infertility (inability to father a child) later in life. Females with Noonan syndrome can experience delayed puberty but most have normal puberty and fertility.Most children diagnosed with Noonan syndrome have normal intelligence, but a few have special educational needs, and some have an intellectual disability. Some affected individuals have vision or hearing problems. It has been estimated that children with Noonan syndrome have an eightfold increased risk of developing leukaemia or other cancers over age-matched peers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT

      Correct Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is a feature

      Correct Answer: Fetal loss in the first trimester is common

      Explanation:

      Turners syndrome is a chromosomal syndrome affecting the development of females. In this condition, all or part of the X chromosome gets deleted, producing the Karyotype 45 XO or 45XO/46XX. Spontaneous foetal loss is common in the first trimester, but foetuses which survive are born small for date, and may have lymphedema, and poor feeding in the neonatal period. These patients face numerous medical and developmental problems throughout their lifetimes including growth and puberty failure due to premature ovarian failure/ hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. However spontaneous puberty can be seen in up to 20% of females with Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever. 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever. 5 days ago, she was taken to her GP with lower abdominal pain and leukocytes 3+ on urine dipstick. She was treated with trimethoprim. On examination, she is found to have a low-grade pyrexia, a CRP of 254 mg/L, and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. She is able to consume both solids and liquids. Based on the clinical scenario, what is the probable diagnosis and most appropriate management for this child?

      Your Answer: This is acute appendicitis, commence broad spectrum antibiotics and arrange appendicectomy

      Correct Answer: This is an appendix mass and intravenous antibiotics where observation is the initial treatment

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate diagnosis for this patient is appendicular mass. The initial treatment, according to the Ochsner-Sherren regimen recommended by Hamilton Bailey, would be the initiation of intravenous antibiotics.RationaleThe presentation is highly suggestive of appendicular mass. The correct management is broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics such as co-amoxiclav and amikacin plus observation. Conservative management is the preferred treatment as surgical exploration at this stage can result in increased morbidity.The child should be allowed to eat and drink. If there are on-going temperature spikes, signs of obstruction or severe colicky abdominal pain, then surgery is required. The majority of patients respond to conservative management.Other options:- This is a partially treated appendicitis which has formed an appendix mass. Rather than planning appendectomy immediately| Hamilton Bailey recommended interval appendectomy after 6 weeks post-discharge. However, the need for interval appendectomy is still under debate.- Drainage via interventional radiology is not recommended in this patient as it can lead to swinging pyrexia secondary to peritonitis secondary to the collection.- The patient would have high-grade pyrexia and be constitutionally unwell if the patient was a patient of pyelonephritis. The presentation of the patient is more suggestive of appendicular mass.- The history would be more extended with symptoms of weight loss and altered bowel habit if the patient had Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 17-year-old boy is known to make irrational decisions which would normally be...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is known to make irrational decisions which would normally be considered risky and subsequently gets in trouble with the police. An area in his brain controls judgement, impulse control and planning. Changes in this area of the brain mostly occur until what age?

      Your Answer: 20 – 29 years

      Explanation:

      The rational part of a teen’s brain isn’t fully developed until the age of 25 or so.In fact, recent research has found that adult and teen brains work differently. Adults think with the prefrontal cortex, the brain’s rational part. This is the part of the brain that responds to situations with good judgment and an awareness of long-term consequences. Teens process information with the amygdala. This is the emotional part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 12-year-old boy presents with a low-grade fever and mild abdominal pain. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with a low-grade fever and mild abdominal pain. On examination, a palpable mass was felt in the right iliac fossa.His temperature is about 38.4℃, and his CRP is elevated to 256. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen demonstrated an appendicular mass.What is the most appropriate management strategy for this child?

      Your Answer: Give broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics and arrange for urgent laparotomy

      Correct Answer: Give broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics, admit to the ward, perform operation only if signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis

      Explanation:

      An appendicular mass, on the whole, is managed medically with intravenous antibiotics and monitoring for signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis. If the child is not responding to medical management, then surgery is performed. This is due to the high morbidity risk associated with operating on an appendicular mass. Consent for a limited right hemi-colectomy must be taken after explaining the increased risk of complications. The decision whether or not to perform an interval appendicectomy is controversial and currently subject to a multicentre national trial. The likelihood of another episode of appendicitis is 1 in 5. Other options:- Ultrasound and clinical examination is sufficient to confirm the diagnosis, especially in a boy. This may not be the case in females.- Majority of appendicular masses respond to conservative management. – Raised CRP indicates significant inflammatory response and thus intravenous antibiotics are indicated. – Intravenous antibiotics are indicated due to sepsis. Oral antibiotics are not sufficient to tackle sepsis in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk...

    Correct

    • A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk is preserved and she is playing actively and well without any other disturbances. What is the most probable cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer: Breast milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is thought to be associated with one or more abnormalities in the maternal milk itself. Breast milk jaundice syndrome generally needs no therapy if serum bilirubin concentrations remain below 270 mmol/l in healthy full-term infants. When the serum bilirubin concentration is above 270 mmol/l and rising, temporary interruption of breastfeeding may be indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby...

    Correct

    • What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby boy who is well feed and thriving, but jaundiced?

      Your Answer: Total serum bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Usually, a total serum bilirubin level test is the only one required in an infant with moderate jaundice who presents on the second or third day of life without a history and physical findings suggestive of a pathologic process. Measurement of bilirubin fractions (conjugated vs unconjugated) in serum is not usually required in infants who present as described above. However, in infants who have hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, or other findings suggestive of hepatobiliary disease, metabolic disorder, or congenital infection, early measurement of bilirubin fractions is suggested. The same may apply to infants who remain jaundiced beyond the first 7-10 days of life, and to infants whose total serum bilirubin levels repeatedly rebound following treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      27.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology And Neurodisability (0/3) 0%
ENT (0/2) 0%
Fluid And Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/3) 33%
HIV (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Child Development (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (0/2) 0%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
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