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  • Question 1 - An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Basal–bolus regimen

      Explanation:

      In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?

      Your Answer: PP cells

      Correct Answer: Delta cells

      Explanation:

      The normal human pancreas contains about 1,000,000 islets. The islets consist of four distinct cell types, of which three (alpha, beta, and delta cells) produce important hormones| the fourth component (C cells) has no known function.The most common islet cell, the beta cell, produces insulin.The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon.The delta cells produce somatostatin, a strong inhibitor of somatotropin, insulin, and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Adrenarche refers to the increase in testosterone, causing secondary sexual characteristics to develop

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?

      Your Answer: A pituitary disorder

      Correct Answer: A hypothalamic disorder

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead to a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following does she have an increased risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, inflammatory bowel disease

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The patient has features of type 1 diabetes mellitus, a disease of autoimmune aetiology. This also puts the patient at risk of developing other autoimmune disorders like Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease, and coeliac disease.All of the other options are non-autoimmune disorders.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike.Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking.Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the first sign of puberty in girls? ...

    Correct

    • What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

      Your Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Correct Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome

      Explanation:

      McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been...

    Incorrect

    • As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Inform the parents that the chromosomes will need to be done and after this result they will be informed what gender the child should be reared as

      Correct Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned

      Explanation:

      Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?

      Your Answer: IV

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.8
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  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curveIn a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH). Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrestedFavourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRHThe ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?

      Your Answer: Lipoatrophy

      Correct Answer: Lipohypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?

      Your Answer: 1.65 m

      Correct Answer: 1.67 m

      Explanation:

      The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go to school. According to him, he was unhappy at the school. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Clinical psychologist

      Explanation:

      The child’s problem should be assessed properly to find the reason for unhappiness at the school. There can be many reasons such as bullying at school, abuse etc. A clinical psychologist should assess this child to take the necessary details and plan the further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer: Delayed puberty

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?

      Your Answer: Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) testosterone stimulation test

      Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age

      Explanation:

      A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2480
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months| progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.9
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  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting blood glucose. Her HBA1c was found to be 31 mmol/mol (5.0%). What is the most probable co-existing condition that can lead to these unusual HBA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      HbA1c stands for glycated haemoglobin. In patients with haemolytic diseases associated with a shortened RBC survival, HbA1c levels can be unusually low despite controlled diabetes mellitus.These haemolytic diseases can include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and sickle cell anaemia.HbA1c:It is a measure of non-enzymatic glycation which occurs due to haemoglobin’s exposure to plasma glucose. As plasma glucose increases so does HbA1c.The level of HbA1c quantitively assesses the control of diabetes mellitus over the last 120 days (as this is the life span of a red blood cell).Haemoglobin type A is separated on cation exchange chromatographyOther subsections include HbA1O, HbA1a, HbA1b.According to the updated NICE recommendations (2015):The target level of HbA1c in children with T1DM is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. It is monitored every three months. Better control is associated with fewer long term complications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.8
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  • Question 20 - A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most...

    Correct

    • A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Noonan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is a condition that affects many areas of the body. It is characterized by mildly unusual facial features, short stature, heart defects, bleeding problems, skeletal malformations, and many other signs and symptoms.People with Noonan syndrome have distinctive facial features such as a deep groove in the area between the nose and mouth (philtrum), widely spaced eyes that are usually pale blue or blue-green in colour, and low-set ears that are rotated backwards. Affected individuals may have a high-arched palate, poor teeth alignment, and micrognathia. Many children with Noonan syndrome have a short neck, and both children and adults may have excess neck skin (also called webbing) and a low hairline at the back of the neck.Between 50 and 70 % of individuals with Noonan syndrome have short stature. At birth, they are usually a normal length and weight, but growth slows over time. Individuals with Noonan syndrome often have either a pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum. Some affected people may also have scoliosis.Most people with Noonan syndrome have some form of critical congenital heart disease. The most common heart defect in these individuals is pulmonary valve stenosis. Some have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.A variety of bleeding disorders have been associated with Noonan syndrome. Some affected individuals have excessive bruising, nosebleeds, or prolonged bleeding following injury or surgery. Rarely, women with Noonan syndrome who have a bleeding disorder have excessive bleeding during menstruation (menorrhagia) or childbirth.Adolescent males with Noonan syndrome typically experience delayed puberty. They go through puberty starting at age 13 or 14 and have a reduced pubertal growth spurt that results in shortened stature. Most males with Noonan syndrome have undescended testes (cryptorchidism), which may contribute to infertility (inability to father a child) later in life. Females with Noonan syndrome can experience delayed puberty but most have normal puberty and fertility.Most children diagnosed with Noonan syndrome have normal intelligence, but a few have special educational needs, and some have an intellectual disability. Some affected individuals have vision or hearing problems. It has been estimated that children with Noonan syndrome have an eightfold increased risk of developing leukaemia or other cancers over age-matched peers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.4
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  • Question 21 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      45.9
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  • Question 22 - A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary...

    Correct

    • A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Low baseline TSH level

      Explanation:

      A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      86
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  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made. Which of the following regarding management is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Bolus of sodium bicarbonate is usually not necessary to correct the acidosis

      Correct Answer: Bolus of insulin recommended

      Explanation:

      The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:

      – Fluids: Bolus of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.

      – Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.

      – Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.

      – Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.2
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  • Question 24 - Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: For the majority of girls there is an underlying medical problem such as a brain tumour, ovarian diseases, thyroid gland problems

      Correct Answer: In about 5% of boys, precocious puberty is inherited from the father

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally earlier age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. The onset of normal puberty is triggered by gonadotropic-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.In most of the familial cases, the condition is transmitted by affected father. In boys, this makes up about 5% of the cases.Full adult height potential is not achieved in patients of precious puberty, although there is an advanced bone maturation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.5
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  • Question 25 - An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?

      Your Answer: Dawn phenomenon

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.Dawn phenomenon:This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:- Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.- Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.- Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.- Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      59.3
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  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with primary amenorrhoea and poor pubertal development. Investigations reveal low oestrogen, and high LH and FSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      131
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Obesity in a 14 year old boy

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 in a 10 year old boy

      Explanation:

      Bone age is used to determine the maturation of a child’s bones’ and is used to detect pathological growth. This is done using the X-ray of the wrist. Several conditions can either advance or delay the bone age such that they may not match the child’s chronological age. Bone age is advanced in conditions where there are prolonged or elevated sex hormone levels such as precocious puberty, or in genetic overgrowth conditions such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Bone age is delayed in constitutional growth delay, chronic ill health, endocrine disorders such as growth hormone deficiencies or hypothyroidism, genetic disorders such as Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and Turner’s syndrome. Obesity is unlikely to cause growth delay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.3
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone| however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer: Inappropriate weight gain

      Correct Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with abdominal pain and vomiting. Arterial blood gases show:pH 7.01, pC02: 2.6, HC03:6, BE-19. The ketones are found to be 4.8. Which of the following most likely explains her blood gas analysis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      Diabetes ketoacidosis is one of the most serious and acute complications of diabetes. At the time of presentation and during treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), several metabolic and electrolyte derangements can ultimately result in respiratory compromise. Most commonly, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia can eventually lead to respiratory muscles failure. Furthermore, tachypnoea, hyperpnea and more severely, Kussmaul breathing pattern can develop. Also, hydrostatic and non-hydrostatic pulmonary oedema can occur secondary to volume shifts into the extracellular space and secondary to increased permeability of the pulmonary capillaries. The presence of respiratory failure in patients with DKA is associated with higher morbidity and mortality. Being familiar with the causes of respiratory compromise in DKA, and how to treat them, may represent better outcomes for patients with DKA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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