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Question 1
Incorrect
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In which of the following situations will a regional fall in cerebral blood flow occur, suppose there is no changes in the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
Your Answer: General anaesthesia with volatile agents
Correct Answer: Hyperoxia
Explanation:The response of cerebral blood flow (CBF) to hyperoxia (PaO2 >15 kPa, 113 mmHg), the cerebral oxygen vasoreactivity is less well defined. A study originally described, using a nitrous oxide washout technique, a reduction in CBF of 13% and a moderate increase in cerebrovascular resistance in subjects inhaling 85-100% oxygen. Subsequent human studies, using a variety of differing methods, have also shown CBF reductions with hyperoxia, although the reported extent of this change is variable. Another study assessed how supra-atmospheric pressures influenced CBF, as estimated by changes in middle cerebral artery flow velocity (MCAFV) in healthy individuals. Atmospheric pressure alone had no effect on MCAFV if PaO2 was kept constant. Increases in PaO2 did lead to a significant reduction in MCAFV; however, there were no further reductions in MCAFV when oxygen was increased from 100% at 1 atmosphere of pressure to 100% oxygen at 2 atmospheres of pressure. This suggests that the ability of cerebral vasculature to constrict in response to increasing partial pressure of oxygen is limited.
Increases in arterial blood CO2 tension (PaCO2) elicit marked cerebral vasodilation.
CBF increases with general anaesthesia, ketamine anaesthesia, and hypoviscosity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).
Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?Your Answer: Methyl group at N1
Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer.
The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?Your Answer: Phase III
Correct Answer: Phase IIa
Explanation:Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (definite dose-finding studies).
Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?
Your Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).
ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:
Salivation
Lacrimation
Defecation
Micturition
Sweating
Miosis
Bradycardia, and
Bronchospasm.Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.
SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.
Which of the following best explains the situation above?Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis
Explanation:When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.
Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.
Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.
Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.
Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:
Your Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body
Explanation:The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.
Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about number needed to harm?
Your Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one patient in that group to receive an adverse outcome.
Correct Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.
Explanation:Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.
In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Give an intravenous dose of an appropriate antibiotic at induction
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are approached by a drug rep who tells you about a new drug. The dosage and side effects of the drug are being determined in a trial. The representative asks you to refer participants for the trial.
What type of participants should you refer? In which phase of trials is the drug currently in?Your Answer: Diseased participants, Phase 2
Correct Answer: Healthy participants, Phase 1
Explanation:Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 10
Correct
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While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down attached to a monitor. He is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?
Your Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume
Explanation:A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.
Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.
Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causes stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.
Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to stroke volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.
Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
1st Month 0
2nd Month 3
3rd Month 1
4th Month 45
5th Month 2
6th Month 0
7th Month 1
8th Month 4
9th Month 4
10th Month 2
Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?Your Answer: Median
Explanation:Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.
Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.
The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.
Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.
In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Correct
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Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 15
Correct
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The rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential is caused by:
Your Answer: Rapid sodium influx
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 16
Correct
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The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?
Your Answer: High protein diets may improve survival
Explanation:Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.
The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.
The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.
Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.
Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.
Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.
Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.
Which of the following physiological characteristics of a 5-year-old most closely resembles those of a healthy adult?Your Answer: Lung compliance mL/cmH2O
Correct Answer: Dead space ratio
Explanation:Whatever the age, the dead space ratio is 0.3. It’s the dead space (Vd) to tidal volume ratio (Vt).
The glottis is the narrowest point of the upper airway in an adult, while the cricoid ring is the narrowest point in a child.
A child’s airway resistance is much higher than an adult’s. The resistance to airflow increases as the diameter of a paediatric airway shrinks. The radius (r) to the power of 4 is inversely proportional to airway resistance (r4). As a result, paediatric patients are more susceptible to changes in airflow caused by a small reduction in airway diameter, such as caused by oedema.
The compliance of a newborn’s lungs is very low (5 mL/cmH2O), but it gradually improves as lung size and elasticity grow. Lung compliance in an adult is 200 mL/cmH2O.
In children, minute ventilation (mL/kg/minute) is much higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Epoprostenol
Explanation:Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.
Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.
Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.
Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.
Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice.
Which of the following explains the hoarseness?Your Answer: Damage to the vagus
Explanation:During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.
Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.
However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.
Hb-102 g/l
WBC - 2.9* 109/l
Platelets - 7 * 109/l
Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?
Your Answer: Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor
Correct Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation:Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.
Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.
Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.
Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.
Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.
Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?
Your Answer: Zero-offset drift
Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response
Explanation:The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:Zero-order:
Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.First-order:
Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.Second-order
Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?
Your Answer: Posterior tibial vein
Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.
The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.
Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangleRegarding the other options:
The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair.
What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?Your Answer: Anaerobic threshold
Explanation:Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.
The parameters measured include:
ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
Oxygen consumption (VO2)
Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
Gas flows and volumes
Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
Respiratory rate
Anaerobic threshold (AT)The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.
Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities. The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship. During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 24
Correct
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After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?
Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.Your Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 25
Correct
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Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration
Explanation:The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:
C = C0. e-kt
C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time
As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.
A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.
A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics
The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.
Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.
The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.
Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?Your Answer: 42 seconds
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?
Your Answer: The systemic vascular resistance rises
Explanation:The umbilical vein closes once the umbilical cord is clamped following birth. This causes a rise in systemic vascular resistance, closing the ductus venosus.
Upon birth, the pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased as the lungs are aerated.
At birth, there is a rise in oxygen tension which causes the corresponding constriction of the ductus arteriosus. This prevents a left to right shunt as it stops aortic blood and blood from the pulmonary artery from mixing. The ventricles do no have an opening connecting them.
The foramen ovale closes soon after birth. It is the septum opening between the left and right atrium.
An adult’s cardiac output is expected to be 5 L/min
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?
Your Answer: 0.15 centimetre
Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre
Explanation:Wavelength can be computed as follows:
Wavelength = velocity/frequency
In the given problem, the values stated are:
Frequency = 10 x 10^6
Velocity = 1540 meters per secondWavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?
Your Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.
Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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