-
Question 1
Correct
-
In which stage of syphilis does neurosyphilis most commonly occur?
Your Answer: Tertiary syphilis
Explanation:Neurosyphilis is a complication of syphilis that occurs when the bacterium Treponema pallidum infects the central nervous system. This can lead to a variety of neurological symptoms, including headaches, confusion, memory problems, and even paralysis.
Neurosyphilis most commonly occurs during the tertiary stage of syphilis, which is the most advanced stage of the disease. During this stage, the infection has spread throughout the body and can affect multiple organ systems, including the central nervous system.
It is important to note that neurosyphilis can also occur in earlier stages of syphilis, but it is most commonly seen in the tertiary stage. This is why it is crucial for individuals with syphilis to seek prompt treatment to prevent the progression of the disease to more severe stages, including neurosyphilis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:
Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The question presents a scenario of an HIV+ patient in their 60s with ongoing depression and cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck, as well as on the mucous membranes. Given these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis would be Kaposi’s sarcoma.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor that develops due to human herpesvirus 8, and it is commonly associated with AIDS. The characteristic presentation of Kaposi’s sarcoma includes red to purple-red macules on the skin that progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions are typically found on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes.
In this case, the presence of purple-red macules on the face, neck, and mucous membranes aligns with the typical presentation of Kaposi’s sarcoma in an HIV+ patient. Therefore, this would be the most likely diagnosis among the options provided.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following is NOT a key adherence message during ART initiation counseling?
Your Answer: Frequency of clinic visits
Explanation:During ART initiation counseling, the healthcare provider typically emphasizes key messages to the patient to ensure successful adherence to their medication regimen. These messages include the risks of poor adherence, the importance of viral load suppression, strategies for missed doses, and methods for storing medication safely.
The frequency of clinic visits is not typically emphasized as a key adherence message during counseling. While it is important for patients to attend their clinic visits regularly for monitoring and support, it is not typically highlighted as a key message during counseling. Instead, the focus is on ensuring that the patient understands the importance of adherence to their medication regimen and has the necessary tools and knowledge to adhere to their treatment plan effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now
Explanation:This question presents a scenario where a pregnant woman has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. The woman herself tested negative for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) last month and has not been immunized against hepatitis B.
The most appropriate management of this patient would be the administration of both hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine now. This is because HBIG should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis B. Additionally, the hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine that can be safely used in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis.
The other answer choices are not as appropriate:
– No further workup or immunization at this time, a repeat HBsAg test near term, and treatment of the newborn if the test is positive: This approach does not address the immediate need for treatment and prevention of hepatitis B transmission to the mother.
– Use of condoms for the remainder of the pregnancy, and administration of immunization after delivery: Condoms may not be effective in preventing transmission of hepatitis B, and delaying immunization until after delivery may put the mother and newborn at risk.
– Testing for hepatitis B immunity (anti-HBs), and immunization if needed: Given the patient’s lack of history of hepatitis B infection or immunization, it is unlikely that she is immune to hepatitis B. Immediate treatment is needed in this scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
What is the ultimate goal of pharmacovigilance?
Your Answer: To improve patient care and public health
Explanation:Pharmacovigilance is the practice of monitoring and assessing the safety and effectiveness of medications after they have been approved for use in the general population. The ultimate goal of pharmacovigilance is to improve patient care and public health by ensuring that medications are used safely and effectively. This involves identifying and evaluating potential risks and side effects associated with medications, as well as promoting the rational use of medicines to minimize harm and maximize benefits.
The answer To sell more medicines is incorrect because pharmacovigilance is not focused on increasing sales of medications, but rather on ensuring their safe and effective use. The answer To increase the cost of healthcare is also incorrect as pharmacovigilance aims to improve patient care and public health while minimizing unnecessary healthcare costs. The answer To promote specific medications is incorrect as pharmacovigilance is not about promoting specific medications, but rather about monitoring the safety and effectiveness of all medications. The answer To improve healthcare infrastructure is incorrect as pharmacovigilance is focused on monitoring medications, not infrastructure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Is a member of the picornavirus family
Correct Answer: May be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis
Explanation:The correct statement regarding the West Nile virus is that it may be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis. This is because the virus can affect the anterior horn cells, leading to symptoms similar to poliomyelitis such as flaccid paralysis.
The other statements are not true:
– Infection with West Nile virus can be fatal, especially if not treated promptly.
– West Nile virus is a member of the Flaviviridae family, not the picornavirus family.
– Transplacental transmission of West Nile virus can occur, leading to complications in newborns.
– Treatment with interferon is effective in West Nile virus encephalitis, along with other medications such as IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Your Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:The patient in this case is presenting with symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, and blood in the stool after consuming a meal of chicken and chips. The presence of Campylobacter Jejuni in her stool culture suggests that she has contracted a Campylobacter infection, which is a common cause of foodborne illness.
In this scenario, the most appropriate therapy would be IV fluids to help rehydrate the patient and replace any lost fluids due to vomiting and diarrhea. IV fluids are essential in managing dehydration, which can be a serious complication of gastrointestinal infections.
Amoxicillin, Cefaclor, Metronidazole, and Trimethoprim are not appropriate treatments for Campylobacter infection. Erythromycin is the antibiotic of choice for treating Campylobacter infections in adults, although the use of antibiotics in these cases is still debated. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective in treating Campylobacter infections.
Overall, the priority in managing this patient would be to provide supportive care with IV fluids and monitor for any signs of dehydration or worsening symptoms. Antibiotic therapy may be considered based on the severity of the infection and the patient’s overall health status.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
According to the 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable Infections, what documentation is recommended for managing records of HIV-positive women and their infants?
Your Answer: The Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet
Explanation:The 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable Infections emphasizes the importance of proper documentation for managing records of HIV-positive women and their infants. The recommended documents for this purpose are The Maternity Case Record for the mother and The Road to Health Booklet for the HIV-exposed infant.
The Maternity Case Record is a comprehensive document that tracks the mother’s health care and treatment practices throughout her pregnancy, delivery, and postpartum period. It includes information on prenatal care, HIV testing and treatment, delivery details, and postpartum follow-up. By using this record, healthcare providers can ensure that the mother receives appropriate care and that her HIV status is properly managed.
The Road to Health Booklet is a similar document designed for infants, including those who are exposed to HIV. It tracks the infant’s growth, development, and immunization status, as well as any HIV testing and treatment they may require. By using this booklet, healthcare providers can monitor the infant’s health and ensure they receive the necessary care to prevent vertical transmission of HIV.
Overall, using these recommended documents allows for comprehensive and systematic tracking of health care and treatment practices for HIV-positive women and their infants, ultimately helping to prevent vertical transmission of HIV and improve health outcomes for both mother and child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
What is the incubation period for CMV?
Your Answer: 3-12 weeks
Explanation:Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a common virus that can infect people of all ages. The incubation period refers to the time between when a person is exposed to the virus and when they start showing symptoms of the infection.
The incubation period for CMV is typically 3-12 weeks. This means that after being exposed to the virus, it can take anywhere from 3 to 12 weeks for symptoms to appear. During this time, the virus may be replicating in the body without causing any noticeable symptoms.
It is important to note that some people infected with CMV may never develop symptoms, while others may experience mild flu-like symptoms or more severe complications. If you suspect you have been exposed to CMV or are experiencing symptoms, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
What role does enhanced adherence counselling (EAC) play?
Your Answer: It provides support for patients facing challenges with remembering to take their treatment
Explanation:Enhanced Adherence Counselling (EAC) plays a crucial role in providing support for patients who are facing challenges with remembering to take their treatment. It is not an optional service for patients interested in complementary medicine, primarily for caregivers, or used only in cases of drug resistance. EAC is not a one-time intervention during initial diagnosis, but rather an ongoing support service for patients struggling with adherence to their ART regimen. By offering personalized care plans and individualized support, EAC aims to improve treatment outcomes by helping patients stay on track with their medication schedule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which antiretroviral drug is recommended for adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment?
Your Answer: Dolutegravir
Explanation:When an HIV-positive individual is receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment, there is a potential for drug interactions with certain antiretroviral drugs. Rifampicin is known to induce the metabolism of many antiretroviral drugs, leading to decreased levels of these medications in the body. This can result in reduced efficacy of the antiretroviral treatment and potentially lead to treatment failure.
Dolutegravir (DTG) is one of the antiretroviral drugs that requires dose adjustment when co-administered with rifampicin. DTG is a integrase inhibitor that is commonly used in HIV treatment regimens due to its potency and tolerability. However, when taken with rifampicin, the metabolism of DTG is increased, leading to lower drug levels in the body.
To counteract this effect and maintain optimal antiviral efficacy, the standard dose of DTG needs to be increased when taken with rifampicin-containing TB treatment. This adjustment helps to ensure that sufficient levels of DTG are maintained in the body to effectively suppress HIV replication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Which ART drug is commonly associated with lipodystrophy, characterized by fat redistribution and metabolic abnormalities?
Your Answer: Efavirenz (EFV)
Explanation:Lipodystrophy is a common side effect of certain antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV, such as Efavirenz (EFV). Lipodystrophy is characterized by changes in body fat distribution, including fat loss in the face, arms, legs, and buttocks, and fat accumulation in the abdomen, back of the neck, and breasts. This can lead to metabolic abnormalities such as insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, and increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
Among the options provided, Efavirenz (EFV) is the drug commonly associated with lipodystrophy. Ritonavir (RTV) is more commonly associated with metabolic abnormalities such as dyslipidemia and insulin resistance. Nevirapine (NVP) is not typically associated with lipodystrophy, but can cause liver toxicity. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is known to cause renal toxicity and bone loss, but not specifically lipodystrophy. Abacavir (ABC) is associated with hypersensitivity reactions, but not typically lipodystrophy.
It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients on EFV for signs of lipodystrophy and metabolic abnormalities, and to intervene as needed to mitigate these adverse effects. This may include switching to a different antiretroviral drug or implementing lifestyle changes to manage metabolic abnormalities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 43-year-old female presented with a 5 day history of a productive cough with rusty coloured sputum. Chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation on her left side. The most likely causative organism would be?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:In this case, the patient presented with a productive cough with rusty coloured sputum, which is a common symptom of pneumonia. The chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation on the left side, indicating a specific type of pneumonia known as lobar pneumonia.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative organism in this scenario. This bacterium is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, especially in adults. It is known to cause lobar pneumonia, which is characterized by consolidation of an entire lobe of the lung.
Haemophilus influenzae is another common cause of pneumonia, but it is more commonly associated with bronchitis and exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Legionella pneumophila is known to cause Legionnaires’ disease, which presents with symptoms similar to pneumonia but is usually associated with contaminated water sources.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the causative organism for tuberculosis, which typically presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a fungus that causes pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS.
Overall, based on the patient’s presentation and the chest X-ray findings, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative organism for the lobar pneumonia in this 43-year-old female patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
What should be done if a client on an NNRTI-based regimen has persistent low-grade viremia?
Your Answer: Consider single drug switch to TLD
Explanation:Persistent low-grade viremia on an NNRTI-based regimen can be concerning as it may indicate the development of drug resistance or suboptimal viral suppression. In such cases, it is important to consider switching to a more potent regimen to achieve better viral control and prevent further resistance.
Immediate regimen change to a PI-based regimen may be too aggressive and not necessary at this stage, as a single drug switch to TLD can often be effective in improving viral suppression. Referring to a third-line committee may be premature, as there are still options to explore before moving to third-line regimens.
Increasing the dosage of the current medication may not be effective in addressing persistent low-grade viremia, as the issue may be related to drug resistance or suboptimal drug potency. Therefore, considering a single drug switch to TLD is a reasonable approach to enhance viral suppression and improve treatment outcomes in this scenario.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
What action should be taken if a pregnant woman with TB symptoms appears very ill with certain signs?
Your Answer: Refer the woman to a TB specialist
Correct Answer: Defer ART until TB is excluded/diagnosed
Explanation:Pregnant women with TB symptoms who appear very ill should not start ART until TB is excluded or diagnosed because they may be at a higher risk of developing immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). IRIS is a condition where the immune system starts to recover and responds to TB antigens, causing an exaggerated inflammatory response that can worsen symptoms and lead to complications.
Initiating TB treatment immediately is important to address the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the disease. Once TB is excluded or diagnosed, appropriate treatment can be started, and then ART can be initiated safely. Referring the woman to a TB specialist can also ensure that she receives the necessary care and monitoring throughout her treatment.
It is crucial to prioritize the management of TB in pregnant women to protect both the mother and the unborn child. By following the recommended guidelines and protocols, healthcare providers can ensure the best possible outcomes for pregnant women with TB symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
How does the guideline propose handling the records of HIV-positive women and their infants?
Your Answer: Using specific documents such as the Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet
Explanation:The guideline proposes using specific documents such as the Maternity Case Record for the mother and The Road to Health Booklet for the HIV-exposed infant because these documents are designed to capture all the necessary information related to the healthcare of HIV-positive women and their infants. These documents provide a structured format for recording important medical history, test results, treatment plans, and follow-up care. By using these specific documents, healthcare providers can ensure that all relevant information is documented accurately and consistently, which is essential for providing comprehensive and coordinated care to HIV-positive women and their infants. Additionally, using standardized documents like the Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet can facilitate communication and information sharing among healthcare providers, ultimately improving the quality of care for this vulnerable population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who admits to sharing needles in the past. He has a flu-like illness and a rash. Concerned he may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness, you order a test.
Which of these tests is most reliably used to diagnose HIV at this stage?
Your Answer: CD8 count
Correct Answer: p24 antigen test
Explanation:In this case, the most reliable test to diagnose HIV at this early stage is the p24 antigen test. This is because the p24 antigen is a viral protein that is present in high concentrations in the first few weeks after HIV infection, making it a useful marker for early diagnosis.
The ELISA antibody test and rapid HIV test, which detect antibodies produced by the body in response to HIV infection, are not reliable during the early stages of the disease due to the window period before antibodies are produced.
CD4 and CD8 counts are not useful for diagnosing HIV at this stage as they are usually normal in the early stages of infection.
Therefore, in this case, the p24 antigen test is the most appropriate test to use for diagnosing HIV during a possible seroconversion illness in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection:
Your Answer: 10 - 20%
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:Hepatitis A is a type of viral infection that affects the liver. Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not typically lead to chronic infection. In fact, chronic hepatitis and carrier state do not occur in hepatitis A infection.
When a person is infected with hepatitis A, their immune system is able to clear the virus from their body within a few weeks to months. Once the infection has been resolved, the person develops complete immunity to the virus, meaning they cannot be reinfected with hepatitis A in the future.
Therefore, the correct answer is: None – Chronic hepatitis and carrier state does not occur in hepatitis A infection and complete immunity is attained after infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended duration of TB preventive therapy (TPT) in pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL are considered to be at higher risk for developing active tuberculosis (TB) due to their compromised immune system. Therefore, it is recommended that these women receive TB preventive therapy (TPT) to reduce their risk of developing TB during pregnancy.
The recommended duration of TPT for pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL is 12 months. This duration is based on clinical studies and guidelines that have shown that a 12-month course of TPT is effective in reducing the risk of developing active TB in this population.
It is important for pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL to adhere to the full 12-month course of TPT to ensure maximum protection against TB. Additionally, healthcare providers should closely monitor these women throughout their pregnancy to ensure that they are responding well to the TPT and to address any potential side effects or complications that may arise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
What is the primary recommendation for managing sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among adults and adolescents living with HIV?
Your Answer: STI services should be an integral part of comprehensive HIV care
Explanation:Individuals living with HIV are at a higher risk of acquiring sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to their compromised immune systems. Therefore, it is crucial for STI services to be integrated into their comprehensive HIV care to ensure early detection, treatment, and prevention of STIs. By providing regular STI screening, counseling, and treatment, healthcare providers can help reduce the spread of STIs among this vulnerable population and improve their overall health outcomes. Additionally, addressing STIs as part of HIV care can help promote safer sexual practices and reduce the risk of HIV transmission to others. Overall, integrating STI services into comprehensive HIV care is essential for the holistic management of individuals living with HIV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?
Your Answer: 95%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Listeria infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for the fetus, with a fetal case mortality rate of 0.25. This means that 25% of fetuses affected by listeria infection do not survive. Listeria Monocytogenes is a bacteria that can be transmitted to the fetus through the placenta, leading to congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is contaminated food, particularly unpasteurised milk.
Congenital listeriosis can result in a range of complications for the fetus, including spontaneous abortions, premature birth, and chorioamnionitis. Neonates born with listeriosis may present with symptoms such as septicaemia, respiratory distress, and inflammatory granulomatosis. The overall case mortality rate for listeriosis is estimated to be between 20-30%, highlighting the severity of this infection during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
How often should women living with HIV be screened for evidence of precancerous changes in the cervix?
Your Answer: Every six months
Correct Answer: Every three years
Explanation:Women living with HIV are at a higher risk of developing cervical cancer due to their compromised immune system. Regular screening for precancerous changes in the cervix is crucial in order to detect any abnormalities early on and prevent the progression to cervical cancer.
The recommended frequency of screening for women living with HIV is every three years, regardless of their ART status or CD4 count. This is because HIV-positive individuals have a higher likelihood of developing cervical abnormalities, and more frequent screening may be necessary to detect any changes in a timely manner.
By screening every three years, healthcare providers can closely monitor the cervical health of women living with HIV and provide appropriate interventions if any abnormalities are detected. This regular screening schedule helps to ensure early detection and treatment of precancerous changes, ultimately reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer in this vulnerable population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
The HIV virus:
Your Answer: Structural proteins are p 18, 22, 150
Correct Answer: P24 is a core protein
Explanation:The HIV virus is a unique retrovirus that has a spherical structure with a diameter of about 120 nm. It contains two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that code for the virus’s nine genes. These RNA copies are enclosed by a conical capsid made up of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins and enzymes necessary for the virus’s development, such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease, and integrase. Surrounding the capsid is a matrix composed of the viral protein p17, which helps maintain the integrity of the virion particle.
Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme within the HIV virus that plays a crucial role in the virus’s replication process. It copies the viral single-stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA, which can then be integrated into the host cell’s DNA. This integration allows the virus to replicate and produce more viral particles, ultimately leading to the spread of the infection.
Overall, the unique structure and components of the HIV virus, including proteins like p24, p17, and enzymes like reverse transcriptase, play essential roles in the virus’s ability to infect host cells and replicate within the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
The percentage of patients with hepatitis B that develop chronic infection is about:
Your Answer: 20%
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. When someone is infected with hepatitis B, their immune system will typically clear the virus within a few months. However, in some cases, the virus is not completely eliminated from the body and the infection becomes chronic.
The percentage of patients with hepatitis B that develop chronic infection is about 10%. This means that out of every 100 people infected with hepatitis B, approximately 10 will go on to develop a chronic infection. Chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious complications such as cirrhosis (scarring of the liver) and hepatocellular carcinoma (a type of liver cancer).
On the other hand, about 90% of people who are infected with hepatitis B will develop lifelong immunity after clearing the infection. This means that their immune system will be able to recognize and fight off the virus if they are exposed to it again in the future.
The risk of chronic infection and complications like cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma is higher in individuals who are infected with hepatitis B at birth (congenital infection) compared to healthy adults. In healthy adults, the risk of chronic infection and liver complications is lower, at around 5%.
Overall, it is important for individuals who are at risk of hepatitis B infection to get vaccinated and for those who are already infected to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent the development of chronic infection and its complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
When is Enhanced Adherence Counseling (EAC) indicated for patients struggling with adherence to treatment?
Your Answer: If the patient reports drug side effects impacting adherence.
Correct Answer: For patients with challenges remembering to take their treatment.
Explanation:Enhanced Adherence Counseling (EAC) is particularly indicated for patients facing challenges with remembering to take their treatment, as part of efforts to tackle barriers to good adherence. It focuses on providing patients with practical skills to adhere to ART and developing an individualized adherence plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning headaches. CT scan of the brain shows multiple ring enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the cause of this finding?
Your Answer: NHL
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:The patient in this case is presenting with vomiting and early morning headaches, along with multiple ring enhancing lesions on a CT scan of the brain. This finding is characteristic of cerebral toxoplasmosis, which is caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii.
Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted through ingestion of cysts found in raw meat or cat feces, or from mother to fetus through the placenta. In immunocompetent individuals, toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic or mild, but in immunosuppressed patients, such as those who are HIV-positive, it can lead to more severe symptoms like cerebral toxoplasmosis.
Treatment for toxoplasmosis typically involves a combination of pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and leucovorin. It is important to treat immunosuppressed patients, infected mothers, and patients with more severe symptoms to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most common complication of untreated syphilis in pregnant women?
Your Answer: Stillbirth
Correct Answer: Congenital syphilis
Explanation:Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. If left untreated in pregnant women, syphilis can be transmitted to the fetus during pregnancy or childbirth, leading to congenital syphilis. Congenital syphilis can result in a range of serious complications for the newborn, including stillbirth, neonatal meningitis, and other severe health issues.
Placental abruption, premature rupture of membranes, and stillbirth can also occur as complications of untreated syphilis in pregnant women, but congenital syphilis is the most common complication. This is because the bacterium can easily cross the placenta and infect the fetus, leading to a higher likelihood of congenital syphilis compared to other complications. Therefore, it is crucial for pregnant women to receive timely screening and treatment for syphilis to prevent these serious complications for both themselves and their babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal.
Which of the following options would be the best for further management?Your Answer: Liver biopsy and antiviral therapy
Correct Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology
Explanation:In this case, the 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive for more than six months, with negative HBeAg, negative HBV DNA, and normal liver function tests. This indicates that she has chronic hepatitis B infection. The best option for further management would be to not initiate antiviral therapy but to monitor her serology regularly. This is because her liver function tests are normal, and there is no evidence of active viral replication. Antiviral therapy is typically recommended for patients with evidence of active viral replication or liver inflammation. Additionally, there is no indication for a liver biopsy in this case as her liver function tests are normal and there are no signs of advanced liver disease. Monitoring her serology over time will help determine if there are any changes in her infection status that may warrant treatment in the future.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is the purpose of Enhanced Adherence Counselling (EAC) as outlined in the guidelines?
Your Answer: To educate about the side effects of ART
Correct Answer: To address issues with adherence to treatment and develop strategies to overcome barriers
Explanation:Enhanced Adherence Counselling (EAC) is a specialized form of counseling aimed at individuals who are struggling with adhering to their treatment regimen, particularly in the context of HIV/AIDS treatment. The purpose of EAC, as outlined in the guidelines, is to address issues with adherence to treatment and develop strategies to overcome barriers that may be hindering the individual’s ability to consistently take their medication as prescribed.
The options provided in the question highlight the importance of EAC in providing education, support, and guidance to individuals who may be experiencing challenges with adherence. While EAC does involve educating clients about the side effects of antiretroviral therapy (ART) and monitoring viral load, its primary focus is on addressing adherence issues and developing strategies to improve treatment adherence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
What is recommended for infants of mothers who are failing second or third-line ARV treatment (VL ≥ 1000 copies/ml)?
Your Answer: They should immediately switch to formula feeding.
Explanation:Infants of mothers who are failing second or third-line ARV treatment with a viral load of ≥ 1000 copies/ml are at a higher risk of HIV transmission through breastfeeding. Therefore, it is recommended that these infants should not breastfeed and should immediately switch to formula feeding. This is to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the infant. Formula feeding is a safer option in this situation as it eliminates the risk of HIV transmission through breast milk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Give antipyretic and ask to come later
Correct Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:In infants under 3 months of age, a fever of 38 degrees or higher is considered to be a significant concern as their immune systems are not fully developed and they are at a higher risk for serious infections. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action in this scenario would be to admit the baby for infection screening and start IV antibiotics. This is because infants at this age are more vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, meningitis, or urinary tract infections, which can progress rapidly and have serious consequences if not treated promptly.
Giving an antipyretic and asking the parents to come back later may temporarily reduce the fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the fever. Similarly, observing the baby for 24 hours or reassuring the parents without conducting further tests could delay necessary treatment and potentially worsen the baby’s condition.
Overall, admitting the baby for infection screening and starting IV antibiotics is the most appropriate course of action to ensure prompt and effective treatment for any potential serious infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?
Your Answer: New influenza subtypes is generated via antigenic drift
Correct Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus
Explanation:Influenza is a RNA virus, which means its genetic material is made up of RNA instead of DNA. Host penetration is indeed affected by the glycoprotein haemagglutinin, which helps the virus attach to and enter host cells. Attachment of the virus to the host cell wall is aided by the enzyme neuraminidase, which helps the virus release from the host cell after replication. New influenza subtypes are generated via antigenic drift, which refers to minor changes in the virus over time. Antigenic shift, on the other hand, is when there is a major change in the virus due to the exchange of genes with strains that infect different species. This can lead to the emergence of pandemic strains.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
When is the first viral load (VL) test recommended after initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART)?
Your Answer: At 6 months
Correct Answer: After 3 dispensing cycles
Explanation:The first viral load (VL) test after initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial in monitoring the effectiveness of the treatment and ensuring viral suppression. By conducting the VL test after 3 dispensing cycles, healthcare providers can assess how well the ART regimen is working and if the patient is achieving the desired viral suppression levels.
Testing after 3 dispensing cycles allows for enough time for the medication to take effect and for the patient’s viral load to stabilize. This timing also aligns with the typical follow-up schedule for patients starting ART, making it a convenient and practical time to conduct the test.
Early detection of any issues affecting viral suppression is key to optimizing treatment outcomes and preventing the development of drug resistance. By monitoring the viral load early on in the treatment process, healthcare providers can make necessary adjustments to the ART regimen or provide additional support to help the patient achieve and maintain viral suppression.
Overall, conducting the first VL test after 3 dispensing cycles is a recommended practice in the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines to ensure effective monitoring of treatment progress and improve outcomes for individuals living with HIV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an ALT of 98 U/l and was Hep B surface antigen positive.
Which of the following is true of chronic active hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus?Your Answer: It is associated with positive hepatitis D serology
Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Chronic active hepatitis due to hepatitis B virus carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma. This is because chronic inflammation and liver damage caused by the virus can lead to the development of liver cancer over time. Marked elevation of serum transaminase levels is also commonly seen in chronic active hepatitis B.
Chronic active hepatitis B is actually more common in men than in women. It is not typically associated with positive hepatitis D serology, as hepatitis D is a separate virus that requires hepatitis B for replication.
Corticosteroids are not typically used to treat chronic active hepatitis B, as antiviral medications are the mainstay of treatment. Therefore, it does not respond well to corticosteroids.
Overall, the most important point to remember is the increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma in patients with chronic active hepatitis B.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
What is the primary reason for deferring antiretroviral therapy (ART) initiation for two weeks in asymptomatic clients with a negative lumbar puncture for cryptococcal meningitis?
Your Answer: To monitor for signs of drug resistance
Correct Answer: To optimize the effectiveness of antifungal treatment
Explanation:ART initiation is deferred by two weeks in asymptomatic clients with a negative lumbar puncture for cryptococcal meningitis to optimize the effectiveness of antifungal treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended duration of TB preventive therapy (TPT) for pregnant women?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:TB preventive therapy (TPT) is recommended for pregnant women who are at high risk of developing active TB, as it can help prevent the disease from developing.
The recommended duration of TPT for pregnant women is 6 months. This duration is based on research and clinical trials that have shown that a 6-month course of TPT is effective in reducing the risk of developing active TB in pregnant women. Additionally, a 6-month course is generally well-tolerated and safe for both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the most significant long-term risk following this infection?
Your Answer: Infertility
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various health issues, including cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is the most significant long-term risk following an HPV infection because certain types of HPV, such as types 16 and 18, are known to cause changes in the cells of the cervix that can eventually lead to cancer.
Carcinoma of the endometrium, coronary artery disease, endometriosis, and infertility are not directly linked to HPV infection. While HPV can lead to other health issues such as genital warts, the most serious and well-established risk is the development of cervical cancer.
It is important for individuals, especially young women, to get vaccinated against HPV to reduce their risk of developing cervical cancer later in life. Regular screenings, such as Pap smears, can also help detect any abnormal changes in the cervix early on, allowing for prompt treatment and prevention of cervical cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: None of these
Explanation:The question is asking which of the listed diseases have antibodies available for treatment. The diseases listed are Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Measles, and Rabies.
– Hepatitis A: There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A, but the hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention.
– Hepatitis B: Antiviral treatment may be required in some cases, but there are no drugs available that can clear the infection. However, treatment can stop the virus from replicating.
– Measles: There is no specific treatment for measles, but most people will recover with rest and supportive care. Prevention is key, and children are vaccinated against measles.
– Rabies: Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly. This includes human rabies immunoglobulin and rabies vaccine.Therefore, the correct answer is Rabies, as there are antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
What is the primary consideration before performing resistance testing for clients failing a DTG-based regimen?
Your Answer: Concurrent TB treatment
Explanation:Resistance testing is a crucial step in determining the most effective treatment options for clients who are failing a DTG-based regimen. However, before conducting resistance testing, it is important to consider if the client is undergoing concurrent TB treatment. This is because TB treatment can interact with antiretroviral medications, potentially affecting their efficacy and leading to treatment failure.
If a client is receiving both TB and antiretroviral treatment simultaneously, it is important to assess the potential for drug interactions and resistance patterns that may arise. This information can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about adjusting the client’s treatment regimen to ensure optimal outcomes.
Therefore, the primary consideration before performing resistance testing for clients failing a DTG-based regimen is concurrent TB treatment. By addressing this factor, healthcare providers can better tailor treatment plans to meet the individual needs of each client and improve their chances of successful treatment outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
What is the primary goal of resistance testing in clients failing a first-line ART regimen?
Your Answer: To assess liver function
Correct Answer: To identify mutations associated with drug resistance
Explanation:Resistance testing is crucial in clients failing a first-line antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen because it helps clinicians understand why the current treatment is not working effectively. By identifying mutations associated with drug resistance, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about switching to a different combination of antiretroviral drugs that will be more effective in suppressing the virus.
Confirming the diagnosis of HIV, determining the patient’s CD4 count, assessing liver function, and monitoring for signs of lipodystrophy are all important aspects of managing HIV infection, but they are not the primary goal of resistance testing in clients failing a first-line ART regimen. The main focus of resistance testing in this context is to identify mutations that are causing the treatment to fail, so that appropriate adjustments can be made to improve the patient’s response to therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
What is the acceptable level for the Absolute creatinine level in pregnant women to indicate eligibility for TDF use?
Your Answer: < 23 cm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:During pregnancy, the kidneys undergo changes to accommodate the increased metabolic demands of the mother and fetus. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. An elevated creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which may affect the body’s ability to process medications like TDF (tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) safely.
A creatinine level of < 85 μmol/L is considered acceptable for pregnant women to indicate eligibility for TDF use. This level suggests that the kidneys are functioning well enough to safely process the medication without causing harm to the mother or fetus. It is important to monitor creatinine levels regularly during pregnancy to ensure that TDF therapy is safe and effective for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
What should healthcare workers do before reporting an adverse drug reaction?
Your Answer: Ignore the reaction if it seems insignificant
Correct Answer: Complete an adverse drug reaction report form in detail
Explanation:Before reporting an adverse drug reaction, healthcare workers should complete an adverse drug reaction report form in detail. This is important because the information provided on the form will help healthcare professionals and regulatory agencies understand the nature of the reaction, the patient’s medical history, the medication involved, and any other relevant details. By providing as much detail as possible, healthcare workers can help ensure that the adverse drug reaction is properly documented and investigated. Waiting for confirmation from other colleagues, ignoring the reaction if it seems insignificant, discarding the medication involved, or reporting the reaction to the pharmaceutical company directly are not appropriate steps to take before reporting an adverse drug reaction. Completing the adverse drug reaction report form in detail is the best course of action to ensure that the reaction is properly documented and addressed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a:
Your Answer: Prion
Explanation:Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) is caused by prions, which are abnormal proteins that can cause normal proteins in the brain to become misfolded and form clumps. Prions are not living organisms like viruses, bacteria, parasites, or arachnids, but rather infectious proteins that can cause neurodegenerative diseases in humans and animals. In the case of vCJD, it is believed to be caused by consuming food contaminated with prions, particularly from animals infected with bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), also known as mad cow disease. This makes prions the correct answer for the pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
When should antiretroviral therapy (ART) be initiated for newly diagnosed or known HIV-positive women not on ART?
Your Answer: Within 24 hours after delivery
Correct Answer: The following day after excluding contraindications to ART
Explanation:Initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART) for newly diagnosed or known HIV-positive women not on ART the following day after excluding contra-indications is important for preventing mother-to-child transmission of HIV. By starting ART promptly, the viral load in the mother’s body can be suppressed, reducing the risk of transmission to the baby during labor and delivery. This timing allows for the maximum benefit of ART to be achieved in terms of reducing the risk of transmission.
Delaying the initiation of ART until after the first postnatal visit or only if the mother requests it may increase the risk of transmission to the baby. Therefore, it is recommended to start ART as soon as possible after diagnosis, once any contraindications have been ruled out. This approach is in line with current guidelines for the prevention of mother-to-child transmission of HIV and can significantly improve the health outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
Which of the following options is NOT recommended for preventing HIV transmission within a discordant couple?
Your Answer: Male circumcision
Explanation:In a discordant couple, where one partner is HIV positive and the other is HIV negative, it is important to take precautions to prevent transmission of the virus. Timed, limited, peri-ovulatory sex without a condom is not recommended as a method for preventing HIV transmission, as there is still a risk of the virus being transmitted during unprotected sex, even if it is timed around the woman’s ovulation.
Intravaginal insemination, intrauterine insemination, and surrogate sperm donation are all methods that can be used to conceive a child without risking HIV transmission to the negative partner. These methods involve medical procedures that can help reduce the risk of transmission.
Male circumcision is recommended for various reasons, such as reducing the risk of HIV transmission during heterosexual intercourse. However, it is not specifically used as a method for preventing HIV transmission within a discordant couple. It is important for the HIV positive partner to be on antiretroviral therapy and for both partners to use condoms consistently to prevent transmission.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the 21-year-old man with general malaise, low-grade temperature, and painful ulceration of his mouth and gums is a Herpes simplex virus infection. This is indicated by the presence of gingivostomatitis, which is a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection.
Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first herpes simplex infection and is typically caused by HSV-1. It is more severe than herpes labialis (cold sores) and is the most common viral infection of the mouth. Symptoms of herpetic gingivostomatitis can include fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise, headache, submandibular lymphadenopathy, halitosis, and refusal to drink.
Other options such as Epstein Barr virus, Lichen planus, and HIV seroconversion illness are less likely in this case based on the presentation of symptoms. Epstein Barr virus infection may present with symptoms similar to infectious mononucleosis, Lichen planus typically presents with white, lacy patches in the mouth, and HIV seroconversion illness may present with a variety of symptoms but typically not with the characteristic ulceration seen in herpes simplex virus infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is recommended for ARV drug administration if a patient cannot swallow whole tablets?
Your Answer: Use only injectable ARV forms.
Correct Answer: Crushing, splitting, or opening capsules/tablets when necessary and as specified for certain drugs.
Explanation:It is important for patients to adhere to their ARV drug regimen in order to effectively manage their HIV infection. However, some patients may have difficulty swallowing whole tablets, which can make it challenging for them to take their medication as prescribed. In such cases, it is recommended to crush, split, or open capsules/tablets as necessary and as specified for certain drugs.
Forcing the patient to swallow whole tablets regardless of their ability can lead to non-adherence and potentially compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. Discontinuing the ARV medication or switching to an entirely new regimen may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by modifying the administration of the medication.
The guidelines provide specific advice on whether ARV tablets/capsules can be split, crushed, or opened if a patient is unable to swallow them whole. This allows healthcare providers to ensure that patients can continue their treatment while addressing any difficulties they may have with swallowing whole tablets. By following these recommendations, patients can maintain adherence to their ARV drug regimen and effectively manage their HIV infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 48
Correct
-
Which intervention is NOT recommended to support adherence to ART and retention in care?
Your Answer: Encouraging clients to discontinue ART during periods of travel
Explanation:Adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial for the successful management of HIV/AIDS. Encouraging clients to discontinue ART during periods of travel is not recommended as it can lead to treatment interruptions and decreased viral suppression. This can result in the development of drug resistance and compromised immune function.
On the other hand, interventions such as mobile phone reminders, home-based care, community-based adherence clubs, and peer support groups have been shown to be effective in supporting adherence to ART and retention in care. Mobile phone reminders can help clients remember to take their medication on time, while home-based care can provide support and monitoring in a familiar environment. Community-based adherence clubs and peer support groups offer social support and a sense of belonging, which can motivate clients to stay on track with their treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
The following are Gram-negative cocci:
Your Answer: Staphylococcus
Correct Answer: Neisseria
Explanation:Gram-negative cocci are a type of bacteria that have a spherical shape and a cell wall structure that stains pink or red in the Gram staining process. These bacteria are classified based on their cell wall composition, with Gram-negative bacteria having a thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer membrane.
Neisseria is a genus of Gram-negative cocci that includes several species known to cause various infections in humans. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the bacterium responsible for the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, while Neisseria meningitidis can cause meningitis and other serious infections. Moraxella catarrhalis and Haemophilus influenzae are also Gram-negative cocci that can cause respiratory infections.
Streptococcus and Staphylococcus are examples of Gram-positive cocci, which have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall. Listeria and Clostridium are Gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria.
In summary, Neisseria, Moraxella, and Haemophilus are examples of Gram-negative cocci that can cause various infections in humans, while Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Listeria, and Clostridium are not Gram-negative cocci.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is sexually transmitted.
Explanation:Human herpesvirus eight, also known as Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), is indeed sexually transmitted. This virus is associated with the development of Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as other conditions such as primary effusion lymphoma and multicentric Castleman’s disease. Antibodies to HHV-8 are found in more than 50% of the general population, indicating widespread exposure to the virus. However, it is not associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma or myeloproliferative disorders. Therefore, the true statements regarding human herpesvirus eight are:
– It is sexually transmitted.
– Antibodies are found in more than 50% of the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)