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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a well recognised adverse effect of prochlorperazine: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a well recognised adverse effect of prochlorperazine:

      Your Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Adverse actions include anticholinergic effects such as drowsiness, dry mouth, and blurred vision, extrapyramidal effects, and postural hypotension. Phenothiazines can all induce acute dystonic reactions such as facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises; children (especially girls, young women, and those under 10 kg) are particularly susceptible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation in both lower extremities?

      Your Answer: The anterior spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The main function of the spinothalamic tract is to carry pain and temperature via the lateral part of the pathway and crude touch via the anterior part. The spinothalamic tract pathway is an imperative sensory pathway in human survival because it enables one to move away from noxious stimuli by carrying pain and temperature information from the skin to the thalamus where it is processed and transmitted to the primary sensory cortex. The primary sensory cortex communicates with the primary motor cortex, which lies close to it, to generate rapid movement in response to potentially harmful stimuli. Furthermore, the spinothalamic tract has a role in responding to pruritogens, causing us to itch. Interestingly, itching suppresses the spinothalamic tract neuron response to the histamine effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is seen in damage to the frontal eye field of the frontal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is typically a result of damage to the occipital lobe (or of the optic radiation passing through the parietal and temporal lobes). Auditory agnosia may been seen in a lesion of the temporal lobe. Hemispatial neglect may be seen in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Receptive dysphasia is seen in damage to Wernicke’s area, in the temporal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech,...

    Correct

    • In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech, is unable to do the heel-shin test, and has nystagmus. The following signs are most likely related to damage to which of the following areas:

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar injury causes delayed and disorganized motions. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities sway and stagger.

      Damage to the cerebellum can cause asynergia, the inability to judge distance and when to stop, dysmetria, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements or adiadochokinesia, movement tremors, staggering, wide-based walking or ataxic gait, a proclivity to fall, weak muscles or hypotonia, slurred speech or ataxic dysarthria, and abnormal eye movements or nystagmus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of...

    Correct

    • After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: 25 minutes

      Explanation:

      If seizures recur or fail to respond after initial treatment with benzodiazepines within 25 minutes of onset, phenytoin sodium, fosphenytoin sodium, or phenobarbital sodium should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with left-sided hemiplegia of the face, tongue, and limbs and right-sided deficits in motor eye activity. A CT scan was ordered and showed a right-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Weber syndrome is a midbrain stroke characterized by crossed hemiplegia along with oculomotor nerve deficits and it occurs with the occlusion of the median and/or paramedian perforating branches of the basilar artery.

      Typical clinical findings include ipsilateral CN III palsy, ptosis, and mydriasis (such as damage to parasympathetic fibres of CN III) with contralateral hemiplegia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline:

      Your Answer: Postural hypotension

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:
      Antimuscarinic effects: Dry mouth, Blurred vision, Constipation, Urinary retention, Sedation, Confusion
      Cardiovascular effects: Heart block, Arrhythmias, Tachycardia, Postural hypotension, QT-interval prolongation, Hepatic impairment, Narrow-angle glaucoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of these drugs may reduce the efficacy of contraception? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these drugs may reduce the efficacy of contraception?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic medications such as carbamazepine (Tegretol), topiramate (Topamax), and phenytoin (Dilantin) are widely known for reducing the contraceptive effectiveness of OCPs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects.

      Correct Answer: There is a reduced risk of toxicity in patients who are ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine.

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a weak opioid and can be used for the relief of mild to moderate pain where other painkillers such as paracetamol or ibuprofen have proved ineffective.Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects. Codeine 240 mg is approximately equivalent to 30 mg of morphine. The capacity to metabolise codeine can vary considerably between individuals; there is a marked increase in morphine toxicity in people who are ultra rapid metabolisers, and reduced therapeutic effect in poor codeine metabolisers. Codeine is contraindicated in patients of any age who are known to be ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolisers).Codeine is also contraindicated in children under 12, and in children of any age who undergo the removal of tonsils or adenoids for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnoea due to reports of morphine toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the body as well as left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face. She also has complaints of vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Further examination of her cranial nerves suggest the presence of Horner's Syndrome. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that she is suffering from a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Wallenberg syndrome is also known as lateral medullary syndrome and posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome. It is the most common posterior circulation ischemic stroke syndrome. The primary pathology of Wallenberg syndrome is occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) or one of its branches.

      It is characterized by vertigo with nystagmus, nausea and vomiting, and sometimes hiccups, dysphonia, dysarthria, and dysphagia often present with ipsilateral loss of gag reflex, ipsilateral ataxia with a tendency to fall to the ipsilateral side, pain and numbness with impaired facial sensation on the face, impaired taste sensation, and impaired pain and temperature sensation in the arms and legs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      7.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (7/10) 70%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
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