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  • Question 1 - An amateur body-builder complains of increasing pain in his right shoulder after a...

    Correct

    • An amateur body-builder complains of increasing pain in his right shoulder after a few days of intense training. A surgeon aspirates clear fluid from his subdeltoid region. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bursitis

      Explanation:

      Bursae are potential cavities that contain synovial fluid, found in areas where friction occurs. Their function is to minimise friction and facilitate movement. Bursitis is the inflammation of one or more bursae, and they can occur in the shoulder, elbow, knee, ischium, amongst other joints. Acute bursitis can appear after strenuous exercise or activity, and chronic bursitis can develop following previous bursitis or trauma. Acute bursitis causes pain, tenderness, and swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his left middle and ring fingers, which he can't extend fully. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Fibromatosis

      Explanation:

      This case is suggestive of Dupuytren’s contracture due to palmar fibromatosis. Its incidence is higher in men over the age of 45 years, and it increases in patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or epilepsy. These nodules are benign, usually appearing as a tender nodule in the palm which becomes painless. The disease has an aggressive clinical behaviour and recurs frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is...

    Correct

    • If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      One of the complications of long-term intake of corticosteroids is osteoporosis. Some guidelines recommend prophylactic calcium and vitamin D supplementation in patients who take more than 30 mg hydrocortisone or 7.5 mg of prednisolone daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults? ...

    Correct

    • Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after activity. X-rays reveal an expansible, eccentric, lytic lesion in the metaphysis distally in the affected bone surrounded by new bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Explanation:

      Aneurysmal bone cysts tend to develop in patients younger than 20 years old. They usually occur in the metaphyseal region of long bones, and are cystic lesions composed of numerous blood filled channels that grow slowly. In X-rays, they show up as circumscribed lesions, sometimes surrounded by new bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoblastoma

      Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for 4 months, which is worst in the mornings. She has also been suffering from fatigue, weight loss and depression. There were no abnormal findings on physical examination. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 110 mm/hour, and serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays were negative. Mild normochromic normocytic anaemia was also found. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) affects older adults, with an acute or subacute onset. Symptoms include severe pain and stiffness of the neck and pectoral or pelvic girdles, which is worse in the morning or after a period of inactivity and is usually bilateral. Other symptoms can include fatigue, weight loss, depression and fever. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated, and normochromic normocytic anaemia can occur. Other tests are usually normal in this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture?

      Your Answer: Results in palmar displacement of the distal fractured fragment

      Correct Answer: Is a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colles’ fracture is a distal fracture of the radius that is a known cause of carpal tunnel syndrome (compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel). It rarely results in ulnar nerve compression. A Colles’ fracture is extra-articular and does not extend into the wrist joint, otherwise this would make it an intra-articular fracture (Barton’s fracture). The distal fragment in a Colles’ fracture is displaced dorsally, unlike in a Smith’s fracture where the distal fragment is displaced volarly (ventrally). Associated fracture of the ulnar styloid process may occur and is a common associated injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      17
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (4/10) 40%
Pathology (4/10) 40%
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