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  • Question 1 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin:

      Your Answer: Cyclo-oxygenase (COX) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and the resulting inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis results in analgesic, antipyretic and to a lesser extent anti-inflammatory actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Excretion of lithium may be reduced by thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors thus predisposing to lithium toxicity. Loop diuretics also cause lithium retention but are less likely to result in lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The sensation produced by touching the arm with a vibrating tuning fork during...

    Correct

    • The sensation produced by touching the arm with a vibrating tuning fork during a neurological examination is mediated by which of the following spinal tracts:

      Your Answer: Posterior column

      Explanation:

      Fine-touch, proprioception and vibration sensation are mediated by the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate, nasal regurgitation of food, and nasal quality to the voice.

      Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for the aforementioned features?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve, ‘the wanderer’, contains motor fibres (to the palate and vocal cords), sensory components (posterior and floor of external acoustic meatus) and visceral afferent and efferent fibres.

      Palatal weakness can cause nasal speech and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect:

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of lithium Include

      Leucocytosis (most patients)
      Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      Dry mouth (20-50%)
      Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      Confusion (40%)
      Decreased memory (40%)
      Headache (40%)
      Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      Hyperreflexia (15%)
      Muscle twitch (15%)
      Vertigo (15%)
      Extrapyramidal symptoms, goitre (5%)
      Hypothyroidism (1-4%)
      Acne (1%)
      Hair thinning (1%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Generalised tonic-clonic seizures

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic seizures

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is a drug of choice for simple and complex focal seizures and is a first-line treatment option for generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is also used in trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Carbamazepine may exacerbate tonic, atonic, myoclonic and absence seizures and is therefore not recommended if these seizures are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to...

    Correct

    • If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to become affected?

      Your Answer: Formation of words

      Explanation:

      The primary functions of the Broca area are both language production and comprehension. While the exact role in the production is still unclear, many believe that it directly impacts the motor movements to allow for speech. Although originally thought to only aid in speech production, lesions in the area can rarely be related to impairments in the comprehension of language. Different regions of the Broca area specialize in various aspects of comprehension. The anterior portion helps with semantics, or word meaning, while the posterior is associated with phonology, or how words sound. The Broca area is also necessary for language repetition, gesture production, sentence grammar and fluidity, and the interpretation of others’ actions.

      Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia in which the output of spontaneous speech is markedly diminished and there is a loss of normal grammatical structure. Specifically, small linking words, conjunctions, such as and, or, and but, and the use of prepositions are lost. Patients may exhibit interjectional speech where there is a long latency, and the words that are expressed are produced as if under pressure. The ability to repeat phrases is also impaired in patients with Broca’s aphasia. Despite these impairments, the words that are produced are often intelligible and contextually correct. In pure Broca’s aphasia, comprehension is intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer: Scanning/staccato speech

      Correct Answer: Hypertonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia means decreased muscle tone. It can be a condition on its own, called benign congenital hypotonia, or it can be indicative of another problem where there is progressive loss of muscle tone, such as muscular dystrophy or cerebral palsy. It is usually detected during infancy. Hypotonia is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia:

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe tumour

      Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      A bitemporal hemianopia is most likely due to compression at the optic chiasm. This may be caused by pituitary tumour, craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma or aneurysm of the internal carotid artery. A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome?

      Your Answer: There is preservation of proprioception

      Explanation:

      Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion. The patient presentation typically includes these two findings; however, there is variability depending on the portion of the spinal cord affected. Other findings include back pain, or autonomic dysfunction such as hypotension, neurogenic bowel or bladder, and sexual dysfunction. The severity of motor dysfunction can vary, typically resulting in paraplegia or quadriplegia.

      Proprioception, vibratory sense, two-point discrimination, and fine touch are not affected in anterior cord syndrome. These sensations are under the control of the dorsal column of the spinal cord, which is supplied by two posterior spinal arteries running in the posterior lateral sulci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of lithium toxicity: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Hyperreflexia

      Correct Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Features of toxicity include:
      Increasing gastrointestinal disturbances (vomiting, diarrhoea, anorexia)
      Visual disturbances
      Polyuria and incontinence
      Muscle weakness and tremor
      Tinnitus
      CNS disturbances (dizziness, confusion and drowsiness increasing to lack of coordination, restlessness, stupor)
      Abnormal reflexes and myoclonus
      Hypernatraemia
      With severe overdosage (serum-lithium concentration > 2 mmol/L) seizures, cardiac arrhythmias (including sinoatrial block, bradycardia and first-degree heart block), blood pressure changes, electrolyte imbalance, circulatory failure, renal failure, coma and sudden death may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Side effects of metoclopramide are commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects and hyperprolactinemia. Therefore its use must be limited to short-term use. Metoclopramide can induce acute dystonic reactions which involve facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. These dystonic effects are more common in the young girls and young women, and in the very old. These symptoms usually occur shortly after starting treatment with this drug and subside within 24 hours of stopping it. Abortion of dystonic attacks can be carried out by injection of an antiparkinsonian drug like procyclidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Correct

    • A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a traffic accident. Upon examination, there is noted ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral motor loss, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. A spinal cord injury is given as a diagnosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of this manifestation?

      Your Answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brown-Sequard Hemicord Syndrome consists of ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Segmental signs, such as radicular pain, muscle atrophy, or loss of a deep tendon reflex, are unilateral. Partial forms are more common than the fully developed syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:

      Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine:

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Common adverse effects include nausea and vomiting, sedation, dizziness, headache, blurred vision and ataxia. These adverse effects are dose related and are most common at the start of treatment.
      Other adverse effects include:
      Allergic skin reactions (and rarely, more serious dermatological conditions)
      Hyponatraemia (avoid concomitant use with diuretics)
      Leucopenia, thrombocytopenia and other blood disorders including aplastic anaemia
      Hepatic impairment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide:

      Your Answer: Dopamine agonist

      Correct Answer: Dopamine antagonist

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate. Metoclopramide also blocks dopamine D2-receptors within the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). At high doses, it is also thought to have some 5-HT3antagonist activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at analgesic doses:

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in:
      People with a history of true hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates (symptoms of hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates include bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema, and vasomotor rhinitis)
      People with active or previous peptic ulceration
      People with haemophilia or another bleeding disorder
      Children younger than 16 years of age (risk of Reye’s syndrome)
      People with severe cardiac failure
      People with severe hepatic impairment
      People with severe renal impairment

      N.B. Owing to an association with Reye’s syndrome, aspirin-containing preparations should not be given to children under 16 years, unless specifically indicated, e.g. for Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      91.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures: ...

    Correct

    • CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Arachnoid granulations

      Explanation:

      From the subarachnoid cisterns in the subarachnoid space, CSF is reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations which protrude into the dura mater, into the dural venous sinuses and from here back into the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      9.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (13/20) 65%
Pharmacology (7/10) 70%
Anatomy (6/10) 60%
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