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  • Question 1 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Incorrect

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer: Transverse cervical

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor

      Explanation:

      Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest X ray revealed a perihilar mass with bronchiectasis in the left mid-lung. Which of the following is most probably associated with these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are neuroendocrine tumours that arise from Kulchitsky’s cells of the bronchial epithelium. Kulchitsky’s cells belong to the diffuse endocrine system. Patients affected by this tumour may be asymptomatic or may present with symptoms of airway obstruction, like dyspnoea, wheezing, and cough. Other common findings are recurrent pneumonia, haemoptysis, chest pain and paraneoplastic syndromes. Chest radiographs are abnormal in the majority of cases. Peripheral carcinoids usually present as a solitary pulmonary nodule. For central lesions common findings include hilar or perihilar masses with or without atelectasis, bronchiectasis, or consolidation. Bronchial carcinoids most commonly arise in the large bronchi causing obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Incorrect

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).

      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.

      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.

      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.

      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries? ...

    Incorrect

    • The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertebral

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is part of the vertebrobasilar system. It is formed by the confluence of the two vertebral arteries which arise from the subclavian arteries. These two vertebral arteries merge at the level of cranial nerve VI at the junction between the pons and the medulla oblangata to form what is know as the basilar artery. This vertebrobasilar system supplies the upper spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum, and posterior part of brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient loses consciousness days or weeks after an otherwise insignificant head trauma, especially in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dural bridging vein

      Explanation:

      A subdural haematoma is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury, in which blood collects between the dura mater and the pia-arachnoid mater. Symptoms of subdural haemorrhage have a slower onset than those of epidural haemorrhages because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries. These injuries are more common in elderly patients, especially those taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs. Oedema and increased intracranial pressure are unusual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What occurs during cellular atrophy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What occurs during cellular atrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cell size decreases

      Explanation:

      Atrophy is the decrease in the size of cells, tissues, or organs. There are several causes including inadequate nutrition, poor circulation, loss of hormonal support or nerve supply, disuse, lack of exercise, or disease. An increase in cell size is termed hypertrophy which is distinguished from hyperplasia, in which the cells remain approximately the same size but increase in number.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Urology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Although gastric emptying is under both neural and hormonal control, it does not require brainstem co-ordination. Increased motility of the orad stomach (decreased distensibility) or of the distal stomach (increased peristalsis), decreased pyloric tone, decreased duodenal motility or a combination of these, all increase the rate of gastric emptying. The major control mechanism for gastric emptying is through duodenal gastric feedback. The duodenum has receptors for the presence of acid, carbohydrate, fat and protein digestion products, osmolarity different from that of plasma, and distension. Activating these receptors decreases the rate of gastric emptying. Neural mechanisms involve both enteric and vagal pathways and a vagotomy impairs the gastric emptying regulation. CCK (cholecystokinin) slows gastric emptying at physiological levels of the hormone. Gastrin, secretin and glucose-1-phosphate also slow gastric emptying, but require higher doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles...

    Incorrect

    • What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles of a man who has undergone starvation for 7 days?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Starvation is the most extreme form of malnutrition. Prolonged starvation can lead to permanent organ damage and can be fatal. Starved individuals eventually lose significant fat and muscle mass as the body uses these for energy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain, a computed tomography showed a large mass in the posterior mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the posterior mediastinum include:

      Superior: a plane through the sternal angle and T4/5

      Inferior: the diaphragm

      Anterior: the middle mediastinal structures

      Posterior the spinal cord.

      Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. In this case, the lymph nodes is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on anticoagulation therapy. To reduce the risk of future emboli, she would benefit from starting on long-term warfarin. Arterial emboli leading to acute limb ischaemia most commonly lodge at which one of the following sites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The common femoral artery is the commonest site of arterial emboli causing acute limb ischemia. The treatment of choice is urgent femoral embolectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to produce which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gamma interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferon gamma is a soluble cytokine previously known as the macrophage activating factor. It is the only member belonging to the type II class of the interferons. It is secreted by a number of cells taking part in the immune reaction including: T-helper cells (CD-4), cells with immunological memory (CD45PA), killer cells (CD8), dendrite cells (CD23,35), natural killer cells (CD16) and B lymphocytes (CD22,CD23). It has both a defending as well as a pathological effect. It induces differentiation in the myeloid cell in the bone marrow. If macrophages are infected by parasites it activates the macrophages to destroy them. IFN-γ strengthens the anti-tumour activities of the cytotoxic lymphocytes. Together with CD4 or CD8 toxins, produced by lymphocytes, it suppresses the growth of the tumour cells. along with these functions it increases the non specific response of the natural killer cells, causing changes in the cell membrane surface to prevent adhesion and penetration of a virus. It can either increase or decrease B cell response and it activates osteoclasts which increases bone resorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Incorrect

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25 year old man presented with a history of headache and peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man presented with a history of headache and peripheral cyanosis. He had been living in the Himalayas for 6 months prior to this. What is the reason for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to myeloproliferative syndrome or due to chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increases RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).

      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:

      Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:

      Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone

      Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone

      Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone

      Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be a carcinogen for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be a carcinogen for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B-cell lymphoma

      Explanation:

      EBV is known to be carcinogenic for B-cell lymphoma, nasopharyngel carcinoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology; Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which condition presents with a positive urine dipstick test for blood, but no...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition presents with a positive urine dipstick test for blood, but no blood cells on urine microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Myoglobinuria, or presence of myoglobulin in the urine is seen due to rhabdomyolysis (muscle destruction). Common causes of rhabdomyolysis include trauma, electrical injuries, burns, venom and drugs. Damaged muscle leads to release of myoglobin in the blood. Ideally, the released myoglobin gets filtered and excreted by the kidneys. However, excess myoglobin can occlude the renal filtration system leading to acute tubular necrosis and acute renal dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence. She is most likely to have:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is the involuntary excretion of urine from one’s body. It is often temporary and it almost always results from an underlying medical condition. Several types include:

      – Stress incontinence is the voiding of urine following increased abdominal pressure e.g. laughing, coughing, pregnancy etc. It is the most common form of incontinence in women, most commonly due to pelvic floor muscle weakness, physical changes from pregnancy, childbirth and menopause. In men it is a common problem following a prostatectomy. Most lab results such as urine analysis, cystometry and postvoid residual volume are normal.

      – Urge incontinence is involuntary loss of urine occurring for no apparent reason while suddenly feeling the need or urge to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence are involuntary and inappropriate detrusor muscle contractions.

      – Functional incontinence – occurs when a person does not recognise the need to go to the toilet, recognise where the toilet is or get to the toilet in time. The urine loss may be large. Causes of functional incontinence include confusion, dementia, poor eyesight, poor mobility, poor dexterity or unwillingness. t

      – Overflow incontinence – sometimes people find that they cannot stop their bladders from constantly dribbling or continuing to dribble for some time after they have passed urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
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