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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years.
      On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord.
      Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema.
      A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests.
      Some of these results are shown below:
      Na 144 mmol/l
      K 2.2 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 34 mmol/l
      Glucose 16 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      224.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old male presents at the OPD complaining of excessive tiredness and frequent...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents at the OPD complaining of excessive tiredness and frequent headaches. On examination, his blood pressure was 205/100 mmHg. Blood tests reveal a decreased serum potassium and renin level and elevated aldosterone level. Which condition is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's disease)

      Explanation:

      Conn’s disease is a condition in which excessive amounts of aldosterone are secreted from the adrenal glands. Because aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium, it leads to a very high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland.
      Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: When followed up, most patients have lifelong hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery

      Explanation:

      Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.

      High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C.
      Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation.
      Other investigations show:
      Blood glucose: 35 mmol/l
      Na+: 132 mmol/l
      K+: 5.5 mmol/l
      urea: 8.0 mmol/l
      creatinine: 120 μmol/l
      pH: 7.15
      HCO3: 12 mmol/l
      p(CO2): 4.6 kPa
      chloride: 106 mmol/l.
      Urinary ketones are positive (+++).

      The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On examination, her pulse is 120 bpm and regular and BP is 90/60. Her JVP is not seen, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear. There is evidence of a right mastectomy. Abdominal and neurological examination is normal. Short synacthen test was ordered and the results came as follows: Time vs Cortisol 0 mins - cortisol 90 30 mins - cortisol 130 60 mins - cortisol 45 Which of the following would be your immediate management?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 100 mg iv tds

      Correct Answer: Intravenous normal saline six-hourly

      Explanation:

      Synacthen test interpretation:
      – Basal Cortisol level should be greater than 180nmol/L
      – 30min or 60min Cortisol should be greater than 420nmol/L (whatever the basal level)
      – The increment should be at least 170nmol/L, apart from in severely ill patients where adrenal output is already maximal.
      The patient’s results show that she has Acute Adrenal Insufficiency
      The guidelines include the following recommendations for emergency treatment:
      Administer hydrocortisone: Immediate bolus injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously or intramuscularly followed by continuous intravenous infusion of 200 mg hydrocortisone per 24 hours (alternatively, 50 mg hydrocortisone per intravenous or intramuscular injection every 6 h)
      Rehydrate with rapid intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of isotonic saline infusion within the first hour, followed by further intravenous rehydration as required (usually 4-6 L in 24 h; monitor for fluid overload in case of renal impairment and elderly patients)
      Contact an endocrinologist for urgent review of the patient, advice on further tapering of hydrocortisone, and investigation of the underlying cause of the disease, including the diagnosis of primary versus secondary adrenal insufficiency
      Tapering of hydrocortisone can be started after clinical recovery guided by an endocrinologist; in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, mineralocorticoid replacement must be initiated (starting dose 100 μg fludrocortisone once daily) as soon as the daily glucocorticoid dose is below 50 mg of hydrocortisone every 24 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      50.8
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most likely to be seen in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most likely to be seen in SIADH?

      Your Answer: Low serum Na, low serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Explanation:

      In SIADH, there is increased secretion of the ADH hormone resulting in increased water absorption. That’s why there would be decreased serum Na, decreased osmolarity and increased urine osmolarity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      6
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  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.

      What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium supplementation

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
      Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
      Short stature
      Stocky habitus
      Obesity
      Developmental delay
      Round face
      Dental hypoplasia
      Brachymetacarpals
      Brachymetatarsals
      Soft tissue calcification/ossification
      The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
      The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Correct Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s Syndrome, is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      The common clinical scenarios in which the possibility of primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered include the following:
      – Patients with spontaneous or unprovoked hypokalaemia, especially if the patient is also hypertensive
      – Patients who develop severe and/or persistent hypokalaemia in the setting of low to moderate doses of potassium-wasting diuretics
      – Patients with treatment-refractory/-resistant hypertension (HTN)
      Patients with severe hypokalaemia report fatigue, muscle weakness, cramping, headaches, and palpitations. They can also have polydipsia and polyuria from hypokalaemia-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Long-standing HTN may lead to cardiac, retinal, renal, and neurologic problems, with all the associated symptoms and signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      25.3
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection in as many months. She has type-2 diabetes and started Empagliflozin (a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor) 4 months ago. You suspect recurrent urinary tract infections secondary to her empagliflozin.
      Where is the main site of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Late distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Early proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Selective sodium-glucose transporter-2 (SGLT2) is expressed in the proximal renal tubules and is responsible for the majority of the reabsorption of filtered glucose from the tubular lumen.
      Empagliflozin; SGLT2 inhibitors reduce glucose reabsorption and lower the renal threshold for glucose, thereby increasing urinary glucose excretion, thus increasing the risk of urinary tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      22.3
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?

      Your Answer: Sulphonylureas reduce peripheral insulin sensitivity

      Correct Answer: Acarbose inhibits ?-glucosidase

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?

      Your Answer: All types of thyroid cancer

      Correct Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
      In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      8.7
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  • Question 12 - A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset....

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases.

      Her admission biochemistry results are as follows:
      Sodium 153 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 micromol/l
      Glucose 5 mmol/l.
      Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320 mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254 mOsm/kg.

      Which one of the following treatments should be used?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      – Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      – Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
      This patient has the central type from metastases.
      In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice.

      What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Correct Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
      Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
      Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
      A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Hypopituitarism

      Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Impaired glucose tolerance is indicated by what glucose venous plasma level 2 hours...

    Correct

    • Impaired glucose tolerance is indicated by what glucose venous plasma level 2 hours after taking the OGTT test?

      Your Answer: Between 7.8-11.0mmol/l

      Explanation:

      According to the criteria of the World Health Organization and the American Diabetes Association, impaired glucose tolerance is defined as:
      two-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol/l) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      6.6
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  • Question 16 - A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been...

    Correct

    • A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been having problems with getting and maintaining an erection. He also admits he's noticed a decrease in the quantity of his facial hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyper prolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Increased levels of prolactin in men can lead to erectile dysfunction, reduced facial and body hair and on rare occasion gynecomastia with galactorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      10.6
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy. On examination, her BP was 160/100 mmHg. On lab examination her Na+=142 mmol/L, K+=3.0mmol/L. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      In Conn’s syndrome hypokalaemia and hypertension are present due to high levels of aldosterone with normal to high sodium levels. In this disease, the patient presents with hypertension and feelings of tiredness or fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy.
      15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week.

      On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92 bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation.
      Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender.

      Results of blood tests show:

      Na 140 mmol/l
      K 4.8 mmol/l
      Glucose 9.8 mmol/l
      Albumin 41 g/l
      ALT 94 U/l
      ALP 61 U/l
      Bilirubin 18 mmol/l
      Ca 2.47 mmol/l
      WCC 10.1 × 109/l
      Hb 12.2 g/dl
      MCV 90.5 fl
      Platelets 234 × 109 /l
      PT 13 s

      Chest X-ray is normal.
      Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      93.9
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months.
      She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone).
      A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal.

      Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      20.9
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  • Question 20 - A 21-year-old singer, who had thyroid surgery a few months before, now complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old singer, who had thyroid surgery a few months before, now complains of not being able to raise the pitch of her voice, and suspects it was because of the surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

      Correct Answer: External laryngeal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      The external laryngeal nerve may be injured or traumatized following thyroid surgery due to its close proximity, which may result in hoarseness or loss of voice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old patient known to have diabetes mellitus presented in the emergency room...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient known to have diabetes mellitus presented in the emergency room with the complaint of involuntary movements of his right arm and leg which disappeared during sleep. Which of the following is the most suitable explanation for this complaint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction

      Explanation:

      These symptoms represent hemiballismus which is common in diabetic patients after the infarction of contralateral subthalmic nucleus. These symptoms are usually present during activity phase and resolve while resting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.

    Investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.

      Investigations reveal:
      Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110)
      Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
      Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)

      Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly.
      Examination reveals an obese man who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      Investigations are as follows:
      Hb 13.4 g/dl (13.0-18.0)
      WCC 6 x 109/l (4-11)
      Platelets 210 x 109/l (150-400)
      Electrolytes Normal
      Fasting glucose 5.6 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)
      LFTs Normal
      T4 12.7 pmol/l (10-22)
      TSH 2.1 mU/l (0.4-5)
      Prolactin 259 mU/l (<450)
      Testosterone 6.6 nmol/l (9-30)
      LH 23.7 mU/l (4-8)
      FSH 18.1 mU/l (4-10)

      What is the next investigation needed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the testes

      Explanation:

      The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
      Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
      His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
      So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check up. His labs are as follows: Fasting blood sugar: 6 mmol/l, Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): 10 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis. With impaired glucose tolerance you face a much greater risk of developing diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as 2-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, and impaired fasting glucose is defined as glucose levels of 100 to 125 mg per dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol per L) in fasting patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 62-year-old male presents to the OPD with a deep painless ulcer on...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male presents to the OPD with a deep painless ulcer on the heel. His previous history includes increased thirst, urinary frequency, and weight loss for the last 4 years. Which of the following investigations would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      People with diabetes are prone to foot problems that develop due to prolonged periods of high blood sugar levels. Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral vascular disease are the two main causes of foot problems and both can have serious complications. Diabetes can cause serious foot problems that can result in feet or limb loss, deformity, and infections. However, it is possible for a person to prevent or minimize many of these problems. While controlling blood sugar by following the recommended diabetes treatment plans is the best way to prevent these serious problems, self-care and regular check-ups with a doctor can also help prevent problems from developing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety.
      On examination, she is hemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid.
      TFTs show the following:
      Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23)
      Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)

      What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2-3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly.
      Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol

      Explanation:

      11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

      In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
      – Increased levels of ACTH
      – Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
      – Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods. She has been treated by her GP for anxiety. Examination reveals a single nodule on the left of her thyroid, about 1.5 cm in diameter.
      Thyroid scan shows increased uptake within the nodule with reduced activity throughout the rest of the gland.
      Thyroid function tests showed a free thyroxine of 30 pmol/l (9-25 pmol/l), TSH < 0.05 mU/l (0.5-5).
      Based on these findings, what would be the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive iodine therapy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have autonomously functioning nodules should be treated definitely with radioactive iodine or surgery.
      Na131 I treatment – In the United States and Europe, radioactive iodine is considered the treatment of choice for Toxic Nodular Goitre. Except for pregnancy, there are no absolute contraindications to radioiodine therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 29 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.
      Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.

      Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 30 - A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5).
      On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck.
      Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan

      Explanation:

      Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 32 - A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
      Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 33 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
      DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
      Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
      Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 35 - A 48-year-old female presented in the emergency department with complaints of increased thirst,...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old female presented in the emergency department with complaints of increased thirst, confusion and drowsiness. When taking her history it was found that she was treated successfully for breast malignancy 2 years ago. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcemia

      Explanation:

      Treated breast malignancy is pointing towards hypercalcemia as it is very common in patients of CA. The symptoms of hypercalcemia are increased thirst, drowsiness and confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 36 - Patients with myeloma mostly present with which of the following condition when in...

    Incorrect

    • Patients with myeloma mostly present with which of the following condition when in hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcemia is the most important finding in all types of malignancies. In myeloma it is especially caused by osteoclast activating factors which increase bone turnover.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old son who has recently been diagnosed by type-1 diabetes. He has an identical twin brother and she is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.
      What advice would you give regarding his future risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has a 30-50% future risk of developing type-1 diabetes

      Explanation:

      The frequency of type-1 diabetes is higher in siblings of diabetic parents (e.g., in the UK 6% by age 30) than in the general population (in the U.K. 0.4% by age 30), while disease concordance in monozygotic (identical) twins is about 40% i.e. the risk that the unaffected twin will develop diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained:
      TSH < 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 29 pmol/l

      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 39 - A 69-year-old diabetic female presents for a regular outpatient visit. Her BMI is...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old diabetic female presents for a regular outpatient visit. Her BMI is calculated to be 33. Lab results: GFR=29, Urea=13, Creatinine=390 mmol/L. Which of the following drugs should ideally be used by this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The management of patients with diabetes and nephropathy necessitates attention to several aspects of care. Importantly, glycaemic control should be optimized for the patient, attaining the necessary control to reduce complications but done in a safe, monitored manner. Screening for development of nephropathy should be performed on a regular basis to identify microalbuminuria or reductions in GFR and if identified, the diabetes regimen should be tailored accordingly. Prevention and treatment of diabetic nephropathy and other complications necessitates a multifactorial approach. From the options provided insulin is the most suitable as sulfonylureas and biguanides are contraindicated in renal failure. Glitazones are known to cause many side effects including fluid retention and oedema. Hence, insulin will be the best option in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 40 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula.

      Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 41 - A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was revealed that she had high levels of FSH and LSH, normal levels of prolactin and low levels of oestradiol hormone. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature ovarian failure presents before the age of 40 in females with a triad of symptoms: amenorrhea, hypergonadism and low oestradiol. This triad is present in the patient.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 42 - A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review.
      He has had diabetes for eight years and he is also being treated for hypertension. He is on the following medications: metformin 500 mg tds, gliclazide 80 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg/d, Ramipril 10 mg/d and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d.
      He is noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      Investigations reveal:
      HbA1c 8.1% (3.8-6.4)
      Fasting glucose 9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      24 hr Urine free cortisol 354 mmol/d (<250)
      9am Plasma ACTH 4 ng/dL (10-50)
      CT abdomen 3 cm right adrenal mass

      Which of the following is most likely to be the adrenal mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cortisol secreting adenoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has Cushing syndrome suggested by the elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. Hence, the mass is most probably a cortisol secreting adenoma.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 43 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 44 - A 39-year-old female had surgery for the removal of thyroid carcinoma. One week...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female had surgery for the removal of thyroid carcinoma. One week later, she presented in the OPD with complaints of numbness, tingling, involuntary spasm of the upper extremities, paraesthesia and respiratory stridor. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia presents with such symptoms. It probably happened due to accidental removal of a parathyroid gland during the thyroid surgery. Hypocalcaemia causes laryngospasm which produces stridor.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 45 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 46 - A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he received tetanus toxoid 8 years ago. What should be done for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human immunoglobulin only

      Explanation:

      Only immunoglobulins are required, as he is already immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 47 - A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
      Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
      Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
      The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
      Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 48 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

    Recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

      Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing.

      Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 49 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

    Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
    Potassium...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

      Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Urine sodium 2 mmol/L
      Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

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      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 50 - A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite.
    Thyrotoxicosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite.
      Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed.
      Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves' disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
      – Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
      – Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
      – Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
      – Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti-sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
      The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
      – The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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