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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.
An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?Your Answer: Temporal, parietal and occipital lobes
Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.
The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:
The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.
The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.
The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.
The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What structure is most posterior at the porta hepatis?
Your Answer: Cystic artery
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The structures in the porta hepatis from anterior to posterior are:
The ducts: Most anterior are the left and right hepatic ducts.
The arteries: Next are the left and right hepatic arteries
The veins: Next is the portal vein
The epiploic foramen of Winslow lies most posterior at the porta hepatis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: ? effects predominate at higher doses
Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process?
Your Answer: Maintains normal renal blood flow when the mean arterial pressure falls to 50 mmHg
Correct Answer: Reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion
Explanation:Two mechanisms are responsible for autoregulation of RBF and GFR: one mechanism that responds to changes in arterial pressure and another that responds to changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid. Both regulate the tone of the afferent arteriole. The pressure-sensitive mechanism, the so-called myogenic mechanism, is related to an intrinsic property of vascular smooth muscle: the tendency to contract when stretched. Accordingly, when arterial pressure rises and the renal afferent arteriole is stretched, the smooth muscle contracts in response. Because the increase in resistance of the arteriole offsets the increase in pressure, RBF, and therefore GFR, remains constant.
The second mechanism responsible for autoregulation of GFR and RBF is the [NaCl]-dependent mechanism known as tubuloglomerular feedback. This mechanism involves a feedback loop in which a change in GFR leads to alteration in the concentration of NaCl in tubular fluid, which is sensed by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and converted into signals that affect afferent arteriolar resistance and thus the GFR (Fig. 33.19). For example, when the GFR increases and causes [NaCl] in tubular fluid in the loop of Henle to rise, more NaCl enters the macula densa cells in this segment (Fig. 33.20). This leads to an increase in formation and release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP) by macula densa cells, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and normalization of GFR. In contrast, when GFR and [NaCl] in tubule fluid decrease, less NaCl enters the macula densa cells, and both ATP and adenosine production and release decline. The fall in [ATP] and [adenosine] results in afferent arteriolar vasodilation, which returns GFR to normal. NO, a vasodilator produced by the macula densa, attenuates tubuloglomerular feedback, whereas angiotensin II enhances tubuloglomerular feedback. Thus the macula densa may release both vasoconstrictors (e.g., ATP and adenosine) and a vasodilator (e.g., NO) that oppose each other’s action at the level of the afferent arteriole. Production plus release of either vasoconstrictors or vasodilators ensures exquisite control over tubuloglomerular feedback.
Renal autoregulation, thus, reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal sodium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He is diagnosed with a distal sigmoid colon carcinoma.
Which artery is most likely to provide its blood supply?Your Answer: Ileocolic artery
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the hindgut, which includes the sigmoid colon.
Note that during high anterior resection of distal sigmoid colon tumours, the inferior mesenteric artery is ligated, interrupting blood supply.
The branches of the internal iliac artery, particularly the middle rectal branch, are essential in retaining vascularity of the rectal stump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Popliteal artery
Explanation:The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.
The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:
The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
The popliteal vein
The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral arteryBoundaries of the popliteal fossa:
Laterally
Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris belowMedially
Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius belowFloor
Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscleRoof
Superficial and deep fascia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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With a cervical dilation of 7 cm, a 33-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.
The cardiotocograph shows late foetal pulse decelerations, and a pH of 7.24 was found in the recent foetal scalp blood sample.
Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?Your Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time
Explanation:Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the baby’s risk and the mother’s safety.
There are four types of caesarean section urgency:
Category 1: A threat to the life of the mother or the foetus. 30 minutes to make a delivery decision
Category 2 : Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening. In most cases, the decision to deliver is made within 75 minutes.
Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.There may be evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (late foetal pulse decelerations and a borderline pH).
Blood samples from the foetus:
normal: 7.25 or above
borderline: 7.21 to 7.24
abnormal: 7.20 or belowWhen a foetal deceleration occurs, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and given a tocolytic if the foetal deceleration is hyper stimulating. Maintaining adequate hydration will reduce the likelihood of a caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.
Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.
On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.
Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.
This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.
The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.
Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Correct
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This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.
Your Answer: C7
Explanation:The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.
Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.
The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.
End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa
Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%.
Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?Your Answer: Check the patient's core temperature
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 11
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:
Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Correct
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The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?
Your Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.
These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:
Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery
Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein
Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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What statement about endotoxins is true?
Your Answer: Can often survive autoclaving
Explanation:Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharides found in the outer cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria. They are responsible for providing the structure and stability of the cell wall.
They cannot be destroyed by normal sterilisation as they are heat stable molecules. They require the use of certain sterilant such as superoxide, peroxide and hypochlorite to be neutralised.
They stimulate strong immune responses, but can only be destroyed partially by specific antibodies. Repeat infections occur as memory T cells cannot be formed.
It can cause septicaemia and associated symptoms such as fever, shock, hypotension and nausea.
It activates the alternative complement pathway and the coagulation pathway using secreted cytokines.
It is not involved in botulism as clostridium botulinum, the responsible organism, secretes a neurotoxic exotoxin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?
Your Answer: The FEV1 is increased
Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid usage slows the decline in health status
Explanation:Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an obstructive, inflammatory lung condition. It encompasses symptoms of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.
Inhaling high dose steroids are prescribed to treat COPD. They are effective at reducing symptoms and improving lung function. They also work to reduce the number of hospitalisations by decreasing the number of acute exacerbation events. Despite providing effective symptom relief, it cannot slow down the decline of FEV1 as COPD is an irreversible condition.
COPD reduces the FEV1 measurements, as well as the FEV1/FVC ratio.
Breathlessness is a major COPD symptom and can occur at any point in the disease progression, including at an FEV1 >50%.
FEV1 is used in COPD staging, and it is classed as follows:
>80%: Mild or stage I
50 – 79%: Moderate or stage II
30 – 49%: Severe or stage III
<30%: Very severe or stage IV
Patients with mild COPD are usually able to manage their condition on their own, however once the disease progresses to moderate, more GP visits are required, with those in the severe category requiring frequent hospitalisation.Asthma is correlated to an increase in transfer factor. COPD (emphysema) is correlated to a decreased transfer factor.
COPD predisposes to eventual pulmonary hypertension as a result of an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 16
Correct
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An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram.
What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?
Your Answer: T12
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.
A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.
The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteriesThere are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration
Explanation:The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:
CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)
where:
1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.
Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.
Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.
Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.
There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.
Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:
Age more than 70: 05 points
History of myocardial infarction:
Less than 6 months: 10 points
More than 6 months: 5 pointsAngina Pectoris:
Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points
Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points
Pulmonary Oedema:
Within 7 days: 10 points
At any time: 5 pointsSuspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
Emergency Surgery: 10 points
Deficient general medical condition: 5 pointsRisk classification:
Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
Grade III: >30 points = high risk -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given
Explanation:A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.
It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .
If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.
In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.
In which of the following anatomic structures does ondansetron produce its effects?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus tractus solitarius
Explanation:Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor. 5HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and in the vomiting centre of the medulla participate in the vomiting reflex. They are particularly important in vomiting caused by chemical triggers such as cancer chemotherapy drugs.
The nucleus solitarius is the recipient of all visceral afferents, and an essential part of the regulatory centres of the internal homeostasis, through its multiple projections with cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal regulatory centres. It participates in the reflexes of the nerves innervating the nucleus, so it mediates cough reflex, carotid sinus reflex, gag reflex, and vomiting reflex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication.
Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expectation bias
Explanation:Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.
Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.
Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.
Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.
A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 24
Incorrect
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One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.
Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 42 seconds
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of these statements is true about spirometry?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes
Explanation:Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg
A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:
Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)
The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.
Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.
Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.
Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.
The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No symptoms have developed, but his father suffered from motor neurone disease. Recently, his cousin has also been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. He searched the internet for screening tests for motor neurone disease and found a blood test called ‘neuron’, and requests to have it done. You search this blood test and find a prospective study going on evaluating the potential benefits of this blood test. On average, this test diagnosed patients with the disease 8 months earlier than the patients who are diagnosed on the basis of their clinical symptoms. The patients diagnosed using this neuron test also survived, on average, 48 months from the diagnosis, whereas the patients diagnosed clinically survived an average of 39 months from the diagnosis. Considering the clear benefits, you decide to have it done on the patient.
Which of the following options best relate to the above scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:Hypochondriasis is an illness anxiety disorder, and describes excessively worriedness about the presence of a disease. While the woman is concerned about her possibility of developing motor neurone disease, she understands that no symptoms have yet appeared. Hypochondriasis involves patients who refuse to accept that they don’t have the disease, even if the results come back negative.
Late Look Bias occurs when the data is gathered or analysed at an inappropriate time e.g. when many of the subjects suffering from a fatal disease have died. This type of biasness might occur in some retrospective studies of motor neurone disease, but is not applicable to this prospective study.
In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically. Of all the options, lead time-bias is a better answer.
The Hawthorne Effect refers to groups modifying their behaviour simply because they are aware of being observed. Any differences in the behaviour have not been mentioned in the question, and it is highly unlikely that a change in patient’s behaviour would have affected their length of survival in this case.
The correct option is lead-time bias. Even if the new blood test diagnoses the disease earlier, it doesn’t affect the outcome, as the survival time was still on average 43 months from the onset of symptoms in both groups. With the help of blood test, the disease was only detected 8 months earlier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 28
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A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry
Explanation:The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.
An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
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A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations.
She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital.
What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.
A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.
While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.
Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
Explanation:The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.
The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.
Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.
The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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