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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings would point towards a diagnosis of neonatal hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Sweating
Correct Answer: Mother has hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Transient congenital hypothyroidism can be due to: iodine deficiency or excess, maternal consumption of goitrogens or antithyroid medications during pregnancy, transplacental passage of TSH receptor-blocking antibodies, and neonatal very low birth weight and prematurity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease.
Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l.
You advise him to start fibrate therapy.
Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?Your Answer: They inhibit adipocyte lipolysis
Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis
Explanation:Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis.
On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin.
It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised.
Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?Your Answer: Fenofibrate
Explanation:Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.
Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.
High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.
Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 4
Incorrect
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All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during pregnancy, except?
Your Answer: Increased levels of thyroxine-binding globulin are seen in pregnancy
Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 5
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history.
On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28.
Investigations show:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
WCC 6.7 x109/l
PLT 204 x109/l
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l
Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/l
TSH 7.8 U/l
Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22)
Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
– Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
– Weight gain
– Decreased appetite
– Cold intolerance
– Dry skin
– Hair loss
– Sleepiness
– Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
– Depression
– Emotional lability, mental impairment
– Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
– Decreased perspiration
– Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
– Blurred vision
– Decreased hearing
– Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
– Weight gain
– Slowed speech and movements
– Dry skin
– Jaundice
– Pallor
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
– Dull facial expression
– Coarse facial features
– Periorbital puffiness
– Macroglossia
– Goitre (simple or nodular)
– Hoarseness
– Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
– Bradycardia
– Pericardial effusion
– Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
– Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
– Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
– Pitting oedema of lower extremities
– Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman with chronic pancreatitis due to gallstones presents with a macrocytic anaemia. The anaemia is most likely caused by:
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Vit b12 requires trypsin enzyme to split it from its R-binders in order to make the vitamin bind to intrinsic factor required for absorption. In alcoholic patients, chronic pancreatitis is very common. Other causes related to alcoholism can be folate deficiency or bone marrow dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as diabetic (DM type 2). He has a BMI=32. Lifestyle modification and exercise have failed to control his blood glucose levels. His labs were: urea=3.5mmol/l, creatinine=90 mmol/l, HbA1c=7.5g/dl. What will be the next management step?
Your Answer: Biguanide
Explanation:For type 2 diabetics, biguanides are the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 8
Correct
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An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the hospital in altered sensorium. She is taking slow, shallow breaths and her breath has a fruity smell. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows the presence of ketones. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:This a case of gestational diabetes presenting with DKA. It is a serious case that requires immediate intervention. Pregnant diabetics tend to develop DKA on a lower serum glucose level than non-pregnant diabetics. The shortness of breath is a trial to wash the excess CO2 to compensate for the metabolic acidosis seen in the ABG. The fruity smell is acetone excreted through the lungs. The main treatment of this case is proper fluid management and insulin infusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma.
On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Investigations show:
Hb 12.6 g/dl
WCC 5.4 x109/l
PLT 299 x109/l
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 121 Ù‰mol/l
Albumin 37 g/l
Ca++ 2.95 mmol/l
PTH 18 (normal<10)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia
Explanation:The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20-25 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state. He is responding to questions however on examination he has nystagmus and hyper-reflexia. His MCV is 103fL.What is the most likely cause for his cognitive impairment?
Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal
Correct Answer: B1 Deficiency
Explanation:Thiamine deficiency is very common with alcoholism. It manifests by Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. The patient is usually agitated, with an abnormal gait and amnesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents with diarrhoea and 8 kg weight loss over the last 3 months. She has also experienced amenorrhea for the past 12 weeks. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Thyroid Function Test
Explanation:Weight loss is most commonly linked to hyperthyroidism. An overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism) or underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) can cause menstrual irregularities, including amenorrhea. In this scenario, we would carry out thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations revealed low haemoglobin, a retic count of 8% and the occasional spherocyte on blood film. Which of the following is the most appropriate single investigation?
Your Answer: G6PD enzyme assay
Correct Answer: Direct coombs test
Explanation:A low haemoglobin and a high retic count is suggestive of a haemolytic anaemia. Occasional spherocytes can be seen on blood film during haemolysis and it is not a specific finding. Direct Coombs test will help to identify autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where there are antibodies attached to RBCs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 13
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night.
Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen
Explanation:As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma.
Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?Your Answer: Carbergoline
Explanation:Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 15
Correct
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Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Explanation:Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERM) that has been approved for use in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
A SERM interacts with oestrogen receptors, functioning as an agonist in some tissues and an antagonist in other tissues. Because of their unique pharmacologic properties, these agents can achieve the desired effects of oestrogen without the possible stimulatory effects on the breasts or uterus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 16
Correct
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A 64-year-old male patient was admitted for dysphagia, emesis and weight loss. He has a firm lump in his left supraclavicular fossa. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:The history is suggestive of gastric carcinoma with dysphagia, vomiting, weight loss and lymphatic metastasis to the supraclavicular node, known as Virchow’s node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 17
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?
Your Answer: Slows gastric emptying
Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male has gone to his local doctor's surgery complaining of weight loss, an increased thirst, and urinating more frequently. His father, grandfather, and both of his sisters have all been diagnosed with DM. What type of DM does this patient most likely suffer from?
Your Answer: IDDM
Correct Answer: MODY
Explanation:The key features of MODY are: being diagnosed with DM under the age of 15, having a parent with DM, and DM in two or more generations of the family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteopenia in the measured site?
Your Answer: A T score of -1.8
Correct Answer: A T score of -2.6
Explanation:Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
Z-score values of -2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above -2.0 SD as within the expected range for age. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2 and he's been found to have glycosuria, which resolved after his recovery. Which investigation is necessary to perform as part of the follow-up?
Your Answer: Random blood glucose concentration
Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose concentration
Explanation:The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?
Your Answer: Subfertility
Correct Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth
Explanation:Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair.
Blood results are shown below:
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1-7)
Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9-35)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Kallmann's syndrome
Correct Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 23
Correct
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In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?
Your Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.
The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease, presented with pain in the thigh and gluteal region, while climbing up the stairs for past 5 months and symptoms were getting worse. He was a heavy smoker. On examination the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses were present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sciatica
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:The presence of the pulses excluded Thromboangitis Obliterans. The pain is not suggestive of sciatica. The history doesn’t support a DVT or an embolus as there is no pain at rest, swelling or skin changes. So the most probable diagnosis is atherosclerosis as the chronic diabetes and smoking support it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up.
The following results are obtained:
Urine analysis: Protein+
HBA1c 86 mmol/mol (10.0%)
What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?Your Answer: 15
Explanation:The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8-12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for advice. He is about to start fasting for Ramadan and he is not sure how to modify the administration of his diabetes medications. He is currently on metformin 500mg tds.
What is the most appropriate advice?Your Answer: No change to the metformin dose
Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal
Explanation:Biguanides (Metformin):
People who take metformin alone should be able to fast safely given that the possibility of hypoglycaemia is minimal. However, patients should modify its dose and administration timing to provide two-thirds of the total daily dose, which should be taken immediately with the sunset meal, while the other third is taken before the predawn meal.Thiazolidinediones: No change needed.
Sulfonylurea:
Once-daily sulfonylurea (such as glimepiride or gliclazide MR): the total daily dose should be taken with the sunset meal.
Shorter-acting sulfonylurea (such as gliclazide twice daily): the same daily dose remains unchanged, and one dose should be taken at the sunset meal and the other at the predawn meal.
Long-acting sulfonylurea (such as glibenclamide): these agents should be avoided.It is important that diabetic patients to eat a healthy balanced diet and choose foods with a low glycaemic index (such as complex carbohydrates), which can help to maintain blood glucose levels during fasting. Moreover, it is crucial to consume adequate fluids to prevent dehydration. Physical activity is encouraged, especially during non-fasting periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age.
On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Correct Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 28
Correct
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Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK?
Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in developed countries. In contrast, worldwide, the most common cause of hypothyroidism is an inadequate dietary intake of iodine. This disease is also known as chronic autoimmune thyroiditis and chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 29
Correct
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A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg
Explanation:The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg during a routine medical check. She is otherwise well and her physical examination is unremarkable.
Blood tests show:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 2.6 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 31 mmol/l
Urea 3.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 77 µmol/l
Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?Your Answer: Renin:aldosterone ratio
Explanation:Primary aldosteronism now is considered one of the more common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
Individuals with primary aldosteronism may present with hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis; however, as many as 38% of patients with primary aldosteronism may be normokalaemia at presentation.
Routine laboratory studies can show hypernatremia, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis resulting from the action of aldosterone on the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) (i.e., enhancing sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion).
Plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio is used for screening because it is fairly constant over many physiologic conditions.The patient is clinically free, so Cushing diseases can be exclude.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?
Your Answer: hypercalcemia is commonly seen
Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen
Explanation:The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 32
Correct
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A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure.
Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l.
A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology.
Which diagnosis fits best with this woman's clinical picture?Your Answer: Profound hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 33
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower.
Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint.
There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes.
Investigations:
His CRP and white count are of normal values.
Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Charcot's ankle
Explanation:Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 34
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:
fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3- 6)
sodium 148 mmol/l (137-144)
potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2-2.6).
However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.
What could be the most probable cause?Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 35
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of management options, she chooses to have radioiodine therapy. Which one of the following is the most likely adverse effect?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Approximately one third of patients treated with radioiodine therapy develop transient hypothyroidism. Unless a patient is highly symptomatic, thyroxine replacement may be withheld if hypothyroidism occurs within the first 2 months of therapy. If it persists for longer than 2 months, permanent hypothyroidism is likely and replacement with T4 should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 36
Correct
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A 36-year-old lady presented with increased bowel motions, palpitations, heat intolerance and loss of weight. She is also tachycardiac. The investigation of choice in this case would be?
Your Answer: Thyroid function test
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is characterised by heat intolerance, loss of weight, increased sweating, increased bowel frequency and tachycardia. On GPE, there might be proptosis of eyes and tremors in the hands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 37
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of weight gain, thinning of scalp hair, dryness and coldness of the skin, constipation and fatigue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:The symptoms this female presented with in the OPD are major symptoms of hypothyroidism due to insufficient thyroid hormone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen.
Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Elevated 24-h urinary calcium excretion
Correct Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 39
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis.
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?Your Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.
Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
– Hirsutism
– Infertility
– Obesity and metabolic syndrome
– Diabetes
– Obstructive sleep apnoeaAndrogen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.
Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years. She is very anxious about her irregular menses and worried as her mother was diagnosed with uterine cancer recently. She is a lawyer and does not want to conceive, at least for the next couple of years.
The examination is essentially normal except for coarse dark hair being noticed under her chin and over her lower back.
Investigations done during the follicular phase:
Serum androstenedione 10.1 nmol/l (0.6-8.8)
Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate 11.6 Ù‰mol/l (2-10)
Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone 5.6 nmol/l (1-10)
Serum oestradiol 220 pmol/l (200-400)
Serum testosterone 3.6 nmol/l (0.5-3)
Serum sex hormone binding protein 32 nmol/l (40-137)
Plasma luteinising hormone 3.3 U/l (2.5-10)
Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/l (2.5-10)
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Correct Answer: Combined OCP
Explanation:This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate-resistant PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Papillary thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Explanation:Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
– Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
– Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
– Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
– Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 42
Correct
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A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI is noted to be 33 and urine culture is negative for nitrates. Which of the following investigations would be done next in order to establish a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Blood sugar
Explanation:This patient is most likely suffering from diabetes mellitus. Diagnosis of DM involves checking for elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycaemia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regimen.
He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning.
Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?Your Answer: Add in a 10pm snack to his regime
Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime
Explanation:The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 44
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of weight loss and palpitations. Examination reveals unilateral proptosis. She also admits that despite having a healthy appetite she has difficulty putting on weight. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy
Explanation:The patient’s age and symptoms suggest Grave’s disease with thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy. In Grave’s disease, weight loss is noticed regardless of normal eating habits of the patient. Palpitations are also typical and may be confused with a panic attack. Proptosis is usually bilateral, but unilateral is also possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?
Your Answer: Reduces the incidence of stroke
Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides
Explanation:Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 46
Correct
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A 75-year-old male patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, was admitted with confusion. On examination he was drowsy and had tremors. Which of the following is the best investigation, which is important for the further management?
Your Answer: Blood sugar
Explanation:The presentation is highly suggestive of a hypoglycaemic episode, which is more common amongst older patient with diabetes mellitus. The chance of hypoglycaemia is higher with insulin users. Blood sugar measurement is crucial in the management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 47
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presented with complaints of anxiety, tremors, sweating, tachycardia and weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following pathogenesis is responsible for such symptoms?
Your Answer: Increased metabolic rate
Explanation:These symptoms are suggestive of thyrotoxicosis. In this disease, the basal metabolic rate of the patients is increased due to excessive thyroid hormones in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 48
Correct
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A 35-year-old female had an oral glucose tolerance test. Her oral glucose test after 2 hrs was 10mml/l. What is the result of her test?
Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Impaired glucose tolerance is a pre-diabetic state of hyperglycaemia that is associated with insulin resistance and increased risk of cardiovascular pathology. To diagnose impaired glucose tolerance, the OGTT value after 2 hrs should be 140-199mg/dl (7.7 – 11.0 mmol/l). Impaired fasting glucose is diagnosed as fasting blood sugar between 100 mg/dl to 125 mg/dl.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 49
Correct
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A 35-year-old female admitted with heat intolerance, neck pain, palpitations and recent onset weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with diagnosis of thyroiditis associated with viral infection?
Your Answer: Reduced uptake on thyroid isotope scan
Explanation:Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain’s thyroiditis) is a self-limiting thyroid condition presenting with three clinical courses of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function. In subacute thyroiditis serum thyroglobulin (TG) levels are elevated. ESR is usually greater than 50 mm/h, often exceeding 100 mm/h. Radio-iodine uptake is low or nil. Antithyroperoxidase antibodies are associated with autoimmune thyroiditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 50
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates.
She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity.
The following results are obtained:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.2
2 14.2
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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