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  • Question 1 - For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:...

    Correct

    • For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:

      Your Answer: Depolarisation of the membrane must reach threshold potential

      Explanation:

      For an action potential to occur, the membrane must become more permeable to Na+and the Na+influx must be greater than the K+efflux. An action potential occurs when depolarisation of the membrane reaches threshold potential. The membrane must be out of the absolute refractory period, however an action potential can still occur in a relative refractory period but only in response to a larger than normal stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      95.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You review a patient with a history of Addison’s disease. He takes 100...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with a history of Addison’s disease. He takes 100 mg of hydrocortisone per day to control this.
      What dose of prednisolone is equivalent to this dose of hydrocortisone? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 25 mg

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 25 mg would be equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.
      The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:
      Corticosteroid
      Potency relative to hydrocortisone
      Prednisolone
      4 times more potent
      Triamcinolone
      5 times more potent
      Methylprednisolone
      5 times more potent
      Dexamethasone
      25 times more potent

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with statin therapy:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with statin therapy:

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of statins include:, Headache, Epistaxis, Gastrointestinal disorders (such as constipation, flatulence, dyspepsia, nausea, and diarrhoea), Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders (such as myalgia, arthralgia, pain in the extremity, muscle spasms, joint swelling, and back pain), Hyperglycaemia and diabetes, Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, Interstitial lung disease and Hepatotoxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A man presents to the emergency department with an injury that has damaged...

    Incorrect

    • A man presents to the emergency department with an injury that has damaged the opponens pollicis muscle.

      Which of the following statements regarding the opponens pollicis muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: It is innervated by a branch of the radial nerve

      Correct Answer: It flexes the first metacarpal bone at the carpometacarpal joint

      Explanation:

      Opponens pollicis is a muscle of thenar eminence, it is triangular in shape and lies deep to flexor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis brevis. It originates from the flexor retinaculum, tubercles of scaphoid and trapezium, abductor pollicis longus tendon.

      Its insertion is in the radial side of the base of proximal phalanx of thumb. It is supplied by the median nerve (C8, T1). It receives blood supply from superficial arch.

      It flexes the metacarpal bone medially across the palm, also rotating it medially, causing opposition, the palmar aspect of the terminal segment of thumb contacts the flexor aspects of any other digit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      83.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Correct

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.

      The stomach G-cells are responsible for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Secretion of gastrin

      Explanation:

      G-cells are a type of cell found in the stomach’s pyloric antrum, duodenum, and pancreas. The secretion of the peptide hormone gastrin is their major function.

      The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:

      Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretion
      Parietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogen
      Parietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorption
      Chief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestion
      Chief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestion
      G-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Mucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acid
      D-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used...

    Incorrect

    • In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used intravenous aesthetic:

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      In the United Kingdom, propofol is the most widely used intravenous anaesthetic. In adults and children, it can be used to induce or maintain anaesthesia, although it is not commonly used in newborns. It can also be used to sedate individuals in intensive care and for sedation during operations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following nerves supplies innervation to the extensor hallucis longus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves supplies innervation to the extensor hallucis longus?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extensor hallucis longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (root value L5 and S1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Sensation to the penis is supplied by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.

      Correct Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      104.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An arterial blood gas test is performed to a 25-year-old students who presents...

    Correct

    • An arterial blood gas test is performed to a 25-year-old students who presents with confusion, headache, nausea and malaise. The results show that carbon monoxide levels are significantly high. Which of the following carbon monoxide poisoning assertions is true?

      Your Answer: The PO 2 of the blood in CO poisoning can be normal

      Explanation:

      By combining with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, carbon monoxide (CO) disrupts the blood’s oxygen transport function. CO binds to haemoglobin with a 240-fold higher affinity than oxygen. As a result, even small amounts of CO can bind a large portion of the blood’s haemoglobin, making it unavailable for oxygen transport.

      During a suspected carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood PO2 and haemoglobin concentrations will be normal, but the oxygen concentration will be drastically reduced. The oxygen dissociation curve will also shift to the left in the presence of Carboxyhaemoglobin ( haemoglobin and carbon monoxide combination), interfering with oxygen unloading.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      85
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the...

    Correct

    • An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Propylene glycol overdose

      Explanation:

      Causes of a raised anion gap acidosis can be remember using the mnemonic MUDPILES:
      -Methanol
      -Uraemia (in renal failure)
      -Diabetic ketoacidosis
      -Propylene glycol overdose
      -Infection/Iron overdose/Isoniazid/Inborn errors of metabolism
      -Lactic acidosis
      -Ethylene glycol overdose
      -Salicylate overdose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches to gut mucosa via a specialised sucking disc:

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Giardia lambliainfection occurs through the ingestion of dormant microbial cysts in contaminated water, food or via faceo-oral transmission via poor hygiene.
      Following ingestion of the cysts, the trophozoite emerges to an active state of feeding and motility. After the feeding stage they undergo asexual replication through longitudinal binary fission.
      They attach to the intestinal wall via a specialised sucking disc. The mechanism for diarrhoea in giardiasis remains unknown but could possibly be due to direct cytotoxicity.
      Giardial trophozoites and cysts pass through the digestive system in the faeces and are excreted. While the trophozoites may be found in the faeces, only the cysts are adapted for long-term survival outside the host.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient presents to ED complaining of a purulent discharge, urethral discomfort and...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of a purulent discharge, urethral discomfort and dysuria. You suspect gonorrhoea. Which of the following cell components produced by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is responsible for attachment to host cells:

      Your Answer: Pili

      Explanation:

      Infection of the genital mucosa by Neisseria gonorrhoeae involves attachment to and invasion of epithelial cells. Initial adherence of gonococci to columnar epithelial cells is mediated by type IV pili assembled from pilin subunit PilE proteins and pilus tip-associated PilC proteins, it then invades the epithelial layer, triggering a local acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):
      Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCD
      Bone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarction
      Anaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in nature
      Aplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)
      Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte count
      Infection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially Salmonella
      Growth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweight
      Hand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in children
      Acute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe disease
      Pulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCD
      Avascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusion
      Central nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is stroke
      Ophthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitis
      Cardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atrium
      Gastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involved
      Genitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCD
      Dermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport.

      Which of the following statements about active transport is correct?

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport derives energy from adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

      Correct Answer: Active transport occurs in glucose absorption from the gut

      Explanation:

      The movement of a material against a concentration gradient, i.e. from a low to a high concentration, is known as active transport. Primary active transport is defined as active transport that involves the use of chemical energy, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Secondary active transport occurs when an electrochemical gradient is used.

      The sodium-potassium pump, calcium ATPase pump, and proton pump are all key active transport systems that use ATP. An electrochemical gradient is used by the sodium-calcium co-transporter, which is an example of secondary active transport.

      The sodium-dependent hexose transporter SGLUT-1 transports glucose and galactose into enterocytes. Secondary active transport is exemplified here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      56
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of beta-thalassaemia major:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of beta-thalassaemia major:

      Your Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly

      Correct Answer: Increased bleeding tendency

      Explanation:

      Features include:
      – severe anaemia (becoming apparent at 3 – 6 months when the switch from gamma-chain to beta-chain production takes place)
      – failure to thrive
      – hepatosplenomegaly (due to excessive red cell destruction, extramedullary haemopoiesis and later due to transfusion related iron overload)
      – expansion of bones (due to marrow hyperplasia, resulting in bossing of the skull and cortical thinning with tendency to fracture)
      – increased susceptibility to infections (due to anaemia, iron overload, transfusion and splenectomy)
      – osteoporosis
      – hyperbilirubinaemia and gallstones
      – hyperuricaemia and gout
      – other features of haemolytic anaemia
      – liver damage and other features of iron overload

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acute pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have long been the cornerstone of pulmonary oedema treatment, with furosemide being the most commonly used of these drugs. Premedication with drugs that decrease preload (e.g., nitro-glycerine [NTG]) and afterload (e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors) before the administration of loop diuretics can prevent adverse hemodynamic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle...

    Correct

    • The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint is:

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      Muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg, innervated by the tibial nerve, perform plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint. The fibularis longus (innervated by the superficial fibular nerve) assists in plantar flexion but is not the most important.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?

      Your Answer: Lateral compartment of leg

      Correct Answer: Neck of fibula

      Explanation:

      Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively.

      The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula.

      Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is characterised by passive carrier-mediated transport down a chemical...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is characterised by passive carrier-mediated transport down a chemical concentration gradient:

      Your Answer: Diffusion

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Facilitated diffusion is the process of spontaneous passive transport of molecules or ions down their concentration gradient across a cell membrane via specific transmembrane transporter (carrier) proteins. The energy required for conformational changes in the transporter protein is provided by the concentration gradient rather than by metabolic activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Motor units can contract in a graded fashion.

      Correct Answer: The force of contraction of a muscle can be controlled by increasing recruitment of motor units.

      Explanation:

      Each motor unit contracts in an all or nothing fashion, i.e. if a motor unit is excited, it will stimulate all of its muscle fibres to contract. The force of contraction of a muscle is controlled by varying the motor unit recruitment (spatial summation), and by varying the firing rate of the motor units (temporal summation). During a gradual increase in contraction of a muscle, the first units start to discharge and increase their firing rate, and, as the force needs to increase, new units are recruited and, in turn, also increase their firing rate. For most motor units, the firing rate for a steady contraction is between 5 and 8 Hz. Because the unitary firing rates for each motor unit are different and not synchronised, the overall effect is a smooth force profile from the muscle. Increasing the firing rate of motor units is temporal summation where the tension developed by the first action potential has not completely decayed when the second action potential and twitch is grafted onto the first and so on. If the muscle fibres are stimulated repeatedly at a faster frequency, a sustained contraction results where it is not possible to detect individual twitches. This is called tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The QRS duration of a broad-complex tachyarrhythmia is: ...

    Correct

    • The QRS duration of a broad-complex tachyarrhythmia is:

      Your Answer: Greater than or equal to 0.12 s

      Explanation:

      It’s a broad-complex tachycardia if the QRS duration is 0.12 seconds or more. It’s a narrow-complex tachycardia if the QRS complex is shorter than 0.12 seconds. The QRS duration should be examined if the patient with tachyarrhythmia is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Of the antiemetics, cyclizine is most commonly associated with acute dystonic reactions.

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine acts by inhibiting histamine pathways and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist which acts both peripherally in the GI tract and centrally within the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine-D2 receptor antagonist and acts centrally by blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide and prochlorperazine are both commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects, such as acute dystonic reaction. Cyclizine may rarely cause extrapyramidal effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An infection causes an Addisonian crisis in a male patient with a known history...

    Correct

    • An infection causes an Addisonian crisis in a male patient with a known history of Addison's disease.

      Which of the following is NOT a well-known symptom of an Addisonian crisis?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Although Addisonian crisis is a rare illness, it can be fatal if it is misdiagnosed. Hypoglycaemia and shock are the most common symptoms of an Addisonian crisis (tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered conscious level, and coma).

      Other clinical characteristics that may be present are:
      Fever
      Psychosis
      Leg and abdominal pain
      Dehydration and vomiting
      Convulsions 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      96.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You want to give colchicine to a patient who has acute gout. Which...

    Correct

    • You want to give colchicine to a patient who has acute gout. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of colchicine?

      Your Answer: Blood dyscrasias

      Explanation:

      Colchicine is used to prevent or treat gout attacks (flares). It works by reducing swelling and the development of uric acid crystals, which cause pain in the affected joint(s).

      Colchicine should be avoided by patients who have blood dyscrasias or bone marrow disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for...

    Correct

    • Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      One of the most common risk factors for GBS is infection with Campylobacter jejuni, which causes diarrhoea.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves, resulting in muscle weakness and paralysis.

      Infection with Streptococcus pyogenes can cause acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is commonly linked to E. coli infection.

      Following measles infection, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient presents with a lump for a dermatological examination. There is a...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a lump for a dermatological examination. There is a circumscribed skin elevation measuring 0.3 cm in diameter seen on examination.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Papule

      Explanation:

      A papule is a solid, well circumscribed, skin elevation measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A nodule is a solid, well circumscribed, raised area that lies in or under the skin and measures greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. They are usually painless.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 11-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of persistent fever despite regular...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of persistent fever despite regular paracetamol, throbbing left ear pain, ear discharge and deafness. Her parents have observed that she is not her usual self, not eating well, and has been lethargic. On examination there is a tender swelling in the post auricular region on the left hand side.

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Acute mastoiditis is a complication (rare) of acute otitis media (AOM) and the commonest causative organism is Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Generally, acute mastoiditis presents with:
      Pyrexia
      Recent history of AOM
      Mastoid swelling and erythema
      Otalgia
      Otorrhoea and perforation of tympanic membrane
      Post-auricular pain
      Protrusion of the ears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Adenosine is primarily indicated for which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Adenosine is primarily indicated for which of the following:

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is usually the treatment of choice for terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia including those associated with accessory conduction pathways e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The Meissner’s plexus acts as the main control for gastrointestinal secretion and local...

    Incorrect

    • The Meissner’s plexus acts as the main control for gastrointestinal secretion and local blood flow within the gut.

      The Meissner’s plexus lies in which layer of the gut wall?

      Your Answer: Mucosa

      Correct Answer: Submucosa

      Explanation:

      The Meissner’s plexus (submucosal plexus), an enteric nervous plexus, acts as the main control for gastrointestinal secretion and local blood flow within the gut.

      It is located in the submucosal layer on the inner surface of the muscularis externa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter nutrient capillaries.

      Correct Answer: Lipids are reesterified in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the enterocyte.

      Explanation:

      Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested (the presence of fatty acids and monoglycerides in the duodenum inhibits gastric emptying). In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Pancreatic lipase digests triglyceride into monoglycerides and free fatty acids. The products of fat digestion (fatty acids and monoglycerides), cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins diffuse passively into the enterocytes. Once inside the epithelial cell, lipid is taken into the smooth endoplasmic reticulum where much of it is re esterified. Dietary and synthesised lipids are then incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      39.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Cellular (1/3) 33%
Physiology (5/10) 50%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (7/8) 88%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Anatomy (1/5) 20%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/2) 50%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (4/4) 100%
Principles (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (2/3) 67%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Passmed