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Question 1
Correct
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A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?
Your Answer: Dysphonia
Explanation:Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria| proteinuria (10g/24h)| creat60umol/l| and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Minimal change nephropathy
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Correct
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An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:This temperature is considered to be a mild fever and is most often caused by a minor infection in children of this age. Therefore, an infection screen should be conducted and an IV antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with recurrent epistaxis and a history of menorrhagia. The physician suspects Von Willebrand disease and requests for blood tests. Lab investigations reveal a prolonged bleeding time and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bernard - Soulier syndrome
Explanation:Bernard- Soulier Syndrome results from a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein protein Ib, which mediates the initial interaction of platelets with the subendothelial components via the von Willebrand protein. It is a rare but severe bleeding disorder. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. The platelet count is low, but, characteristically, the platelets are large, often the size of red blood cells, and may be missed on complete blood counts because most automatic counters do not count them as platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The correlation coefficient is used to determine whether there is a mathematical linear relationship between diastolic blood pressure and serum cholesterol levels in a group of patients with hypertension (both variables have a normal distribution).Which of the following five coefficients is described?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parametric Pearson’s correlation coefficient
Explanation:Correlation is a bivariate analysis that measures the strength of association between two variables and the direction of the relationship.Pearson r correlation: Pearson r correlation is the most widely used correlation statistic to measure the degree of the relationship between linearly related variables. Pearson’s correlation coefficient is the test that measures the statistical relationship, or association, between two continuous variables. It is known as the best method of measuring the association between variables of interest because it is based on the method of covariance. It gives information about the magnitude of the association, or correlation, as well as the direction of the relationship.The non-parametric Spearman or Kendall rank correlation coefficient is used if neither variable has a normal distribution or the sample size is small (i.e. <20).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment requires how much energy to maintain essential body functions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50kcal/kg/day
Explanation:The average amount of energy required by a well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment is 50/kcal/kg to maintain essential body functions while it takes about 70 kcal/kg/day for optimal growth. It is important to ensure that enough proteins are given per calorie to limit catabolism and promote cell building. Caloric need usually increases when the baby is ill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diaphragm rupture
Explanation:Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Regarding normal gross motor development of a 3-year-old child, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A child age three should be able to throw a ball both under and over hand
Explanation:A three-year child’s typical developmental milestones include walking up and down the stairs with alternating feet, jumping in a place with two feet together, and jumping forward for about 2 feet. The child can pedal a tricycle and can throw a ball over and underhand. An average child should start walking around 12-14 months of age and should be investigated as early as 18 months if they do not begin to walk. Skipping can be done by a child of 5 years of age. A child of 6-7 years of age can ride a bike with stabilizers and can balance on one foot for 20 seconds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midline lumbosacral lipoma
Explanation:A lumbosacral lipoma is a form of congenital spinal lipoma and can be regarded as a cutaneous marker of dysraphism. It is not a skin condition but rather represents a defect in the process of neurulation and leads to a constellation of other abnormalities. The most common other systemic abnormalities associated with midline lumbosacral lipoma include complex anorectal and urological malformations. Other mentioned conditions are benign rashes or birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he sustained a distal humerus fracture at the age of 12. On examination, there was diminished sensation overlying the hypothenar eminence and medial one and half fingers. What is the most likely nerve injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely nerve injured in this case is the ulnar nerve.Ulnar Nerve:It arises from the medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1).It supplies motor fibres to the following structures:- Medial two lumbricals- Adductor pollicis- Interossei- Hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimiflexor carpi ulnarisIt carries sensation from the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial 1 1/2 fingers.Patterns of damageIf the nerve is damaged at the wrist, the following features are observed:- Claw hand’: Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits.- Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)- Wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles- A sensory loss in the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)If the nerve is damaged at the elbow or above the ulnar paradox is observed – the fourth and fifth fingers are simply paralyzed and claw hand is less severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Don’t give the vaccine
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines such as the MMR, should be avoided in HIV+ patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parental unemployment
Explanation:Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystine stone
Explanation:Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament
Explanation:The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of delayed developmental milestones since birth. On examination, he has poor muscle tone and balance, and a head circumference, which is greater than normal. Imaging of the patient's head revealed a diminished cerebellar vermis, a large fourth ventricle, and an enlarged posterior fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dandy-Walker syndrome
Explanation:Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterised by symptoms of brain maldevelopment that are seen in this patient. A large cranium indicates hydrocephalus, and the hypotonia indicates poor limb development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shoulder dystocia
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube
Explanation:The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg
Explanation:According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy observed a bluish painless swelling in his left scrotum. It is soft and can be compressed. What would you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The boy seems to have a varicocele so the most appropriate next step would be reassurance. A varicocele is an enlargement of the veins within the scrotum called the pampiniform plexus. A varicocele only occurs in the scrotum and is very similar to varicose veins that can occur in the leg. Because a varicocele usually causes no symptoms, it often requires no treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common
Explanation:Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 7 day old baby weighed 3.5kg when born. His weight is now 3kg. Choose the most appropriate next step for this child.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue regular child care
Explanation:In the first week after birth, it is normal for the baby to lose weight and then gain it again. Therefore, regular child care should be maintained.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics
Explanation:This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a tree climbing accident in which a small branch gave way, leaving him suspended by one arm. He can move his arm into any position but is unable to use his hand effectively.Which of the following structures has he most likely damaged in the accident?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The T1 nerve root
Explanation:The boy is most likely to have sustained an injury to his brachial plexus as a result of upward traction of his arm for an extended period of time. We can rule out the topmost nerve roots of the brachial plexus, C6 and C7 as these supply the larger muscles of the arm responsible for moving the shoulder, the elbow and the wrist. The anatomical structure affected is therefore the T1 nerve root which is responsible for movement of the muscles in the hand. This type of injury is called a Klumpke’s Palsy, which is the result of a hyper-abducted trauma to the arm, damaging the C8 and T1 nerve roots. While the radial and ulnar nerve also innervate the hand, the history given points to Klumpke’s palsy as the best explanation for this mechanism of injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 31
Incorrect
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What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Airborne
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxsackie
Explanation:This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5 mg per rectum (PR) diazepam to terminate the seizure and is still only responding to voice 6 hours later. He was diagnosed with measles five days prior to this episode.Which of the following is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encephalitis
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is encephalitis secondary to measles infection.Encephalitis:Encephalitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It usually presents within 1–14 days of the rash, usually day 5. It may present with fever, headache, vomiting, stiff neck, meningeal irritation, drowsiness, seizures, reduced consciousness| 15% will have neurological sequelae| 10% mortality.Other options:- Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It is thought to be a postinfectious immune response. Clinical manifestations include fever, headache, neck stiffness, seizures and mental status changes. It could fit this presentation although it tends to present in the recovery phase of measles infection, typically two weeks after the exanthem. In contrast, encephalitis tends to occur within a few days of the rash.- The history is not that of a typical febrile seizure as it lasted >15 minutes. He has also not recovered consciousness at 4 hours. The diazepam should have been eliminated within 4 hours and so should no longer be contributing to his reduced level of consciousness. Also, the history states the recent diagnosis of measles, and so complications of measles should be considered.- Intracranial bleed secondary to thrombocytopenia: Measles is not known to cause thrombocytopenia.- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (also known as Dawson’s encephalitis): This is an extremely rare complication of measles. It is a progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system that occurs 7–10 years after a measles infection. The treatment for SSPE is mainly intraventricular interferon therapy through an Ommaya reservoir. The prognosis is poor, and it is usually fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 35
Incorrect
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In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with acne, hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. Which of the following hormonal changes will hint towards the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised LH:FSH ratio
Explanation:The European Society of Human Reproduction and Embryology/American Society for Reproductive Medicine Rotterdam consensus (ESHRE/ASRM) developed and enlarged the diagnosis of PCOS, requiring two of three features: anovulation or oligo-ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology (PCOM) seen on ultrasound. Finally the Androgen Excess Society defined PCOS as hyperandrogenism with ovarian dysfunction or polycystic ovaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue in many parts of the body. Connective tissue provides strength and flexibility to structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles, blood vessels, and heart valves. The signs and symptoms of Marfan syndrome vary widely in severity, timing of onset, and rate of progression.This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder.At least 25 percent of Marfan syndrome cases result from a new mutation in the FBN1 gene. These cases occur in people with no history of the disorder in their family.The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and defects in the large blood vessel that distributes blood from the heart to the rest of the body (the aorta).Associations include:Tall statureLearning disability (50%)Lens subluxation (usually upwards)Femoral herniaHemivertebraeCardiac problems (Aortic/mitral regurgitation, aneurysms)Joint hypermobilityArachnodactyly
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele
Explanation:Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is found to have a loud heart murmur but is otherwise well 6-hour baby after birth.Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot usually is diagnosed after a baby is born, often after the infant has an episode of turning blue during crying or feeding (a tet spell). A loud heart murmur is usually present.An atrial septal defect is present at birth, but many babies do not have any signs or symptoms.Coarctation of the aorta is usually diagnosed after the baby is born. How early in life the defect is diagnosed usually depends on how mild or severe the symptoms are. New-born screening using pulse oximetry during the first few days of life may or may not detect coarctation of the aorta.In babies with a more serious condition, early signs usually include:pale skinirritabilityheavy sweatingdifficulty breathingBabies born with pulmonary atresia will show symptoms at birth or very soon afterwards. They may be cyanotic. However, it is not uncommon for a heart murmur to be absent right at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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