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  • Question 1 - During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original size. Which of the following organelles is responsible for this regression?

      Your Answer: Golgi apparatus

      Correct Answer: Lysosomes

      Explanation:

      Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes which digest macromolecules. They are found in both plants and animals and are active in autophagic cell death, digestion after phagocytosis and for the cells own recycling process. They fuse with the molecules and release their content resulting in digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy...

    Correct

    • An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy is complicated when a tear develops in a large venous structure in the posterior mediastinum that empties into the superior vena cava. Which of the following structures is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is formed by the union of the right subcostal veins and the ascending lumbar veins at the level of the 12th thoracic vertebra. It enters the thorax through the aortic hiatus to ascend in the posterior mediastinum and arching over the right main bronchus posteriorly at the root of the right lung to join the superior vena cava before it pierces the pericardium.

      The basilic vein is a vein on the medial aspect of the arm that ascends to become the axillary vein.

      The cephalic vein is also a vein of the arm.

      The external jugular and brachiocephalic vein are not in the posterior mediastinum.

      The median cubital vein is found in the cubital fossa of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. A full blood count revealed: haematocrit = 30%, erythrocytes = 4 × 106/μ, haemoglobin level = 8 g/dl. To determine the likely cause of his anaemia, red blood cell indices were calculated. Which RBC indices are correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MCHC = haemoglobin concentration/haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is calculated simply by dividing the haemoglobin concentration (8 g/dl) by the haematocrit (0.3). The normal range is 31–36 g/dl. This patient has a hypochromic anaemia (MCHC = 8/0.3 = 26.7 g/dl). Dividing the haemoglobin concentration × 10 by erythrocyte number yields mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Normal range is 25.4–34.6 pg/cell and this patient has a significantly reduced cellular haemoglobin content (MCH = 8 × 10/4 = 20 pg/cell). Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is calculated by dividing haematocrit × 1000 by erythrocyte number (4 × 106/μl). Normal range is 80–100 fl and this patient has a microcytic anaemia (MCV = 0.3 × 1000/4 = 75 fl). Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia is characteristic for iron-deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient loses consciousness days or weeks after an otherwise insignificant head trauma, especially in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dural bridging vein

      Explanation:

      A subdural haematoma is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury, in which blood collects between the dura mater and the pia-arachnoid mater. Symptoms of subdural haemorrhage have a slower onset than those of epidural haemorrhages because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries. These injuries are more common in elderly patients, especially those taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs. Oedema and increased intracranial pressure are unusual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not seen as a complication of wound healing?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not seen as a complication of wound healing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Complications in wound healing can originate due to abnormalities in the repair process. These abnormalities are :

      1) Deficient scar formation: insufficient granulation tissue can lead to wound dehiscence and ulceration. Dehiscence or wound rupture is seen most commonly in abdominal surgery due to increased intraabdominal pressure. Ulcerations are common in extremity wounds due to inadequate vascularization.

      2) Excessive formation of repair components: collagen being laid down may begin normally however later lead to a raised scar also called a hypertrophic scar, which can extend beyond its boundaries to form a keloid and

      3) Formation of contractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80 year-old quadriplegic man has been lying supine for 7 weeks in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year-old quadriplegic man has been lying supine for 7 weeks in a critical care ward. He develops a right lung abscess that is draining by gravity to a particular region of the lung. Which is the most likely site of pus collection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior segment of the lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The superior segmental bronchus of the lower lobe of the right lung branches posteriorly off the intermediate bronchus or the inferior lobe bronchus. It is therefore more likely to receive fluid or foreign bodies that enter the right main bronchus especially when the patient is supine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old...

    Incorrect

    • The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules

      Explanation:

      The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

      Explanation:

      The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) provides attachment on its posterior border to the superior pharyngeal constrictor and on its anterior border to the buccinator muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Incorrect

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year old lady presented to the hospital with abnormal passing of blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year old lady presented to the hospital with abnormal passing of blood per vagina. On examination, she was found to have an endocervical polypoidal mass. On enquiry, she gave history of oral contraceptive usage for 3 years. What finding is expected on the histopathology report of biopsy of the mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microglandular hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endocervical polyps or microglandular hyperplasia are benign growths occurring in the endocervical canal, in about 2-5% women and occur secondary to use of oral contraceptives. They are usually < 1cm in size, friable and reddish-pink. Usually asymptomatic, they can cause bleeding or become infected, leading to leucorrhoea (purulent vaginal discharge). They are usually benign but need to be differentiated from adenocarcinomas by histology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A butcher accidentally cut himself on his right index finger. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A butcher accidentally cut himself on his right index finger. Which of the following substances when in contact with the basement membrane of the injured vasculature will activate the coagulation cascade as well as the kinin system in a first response to this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hageman factor

      Explanation:

      Hageman factor/factor XII in the intrinsic pathway activates prekallikrein and factor XI. Deficiency will not cause excessive bleeding as other coagulation factors will be utilized but the PTT will be greater than 200 seconds.

      Thromboxane promotes platelet aggregation and causes vasoconstriction.

      Plasmin, which is cleaved from plasminogen acts as an anticoagulant which breaks down thrombi.

      Platelet activating factor promotes platelet aggregation and is also chemotactic to neutrophils.

      Histamine acts as a vasodilator.

      Platelet inhibiting factor acts an anticoagulant.

      Renin is a hormone released from the kidney that causes vasoconstriction and water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that is increasing in intensity. This pain is associated with abdominal distension and faint, high-pitched bowel sounds. An old scar is also noted on the abdomen. An erect abdominal X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels in dilated bowel loops. No occult blood was found in stool sample. What is the most likely predisposing factor for his present condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery

      Explanation:

      The described features suggest acute bowel obstruction. The scar described points toward previous surgery, which suggests development of peritoneal adhesions that could lead to obstruction. Hepatitis does not lead to dilated bowel loops. Amoebiasis could lead to inflammatory bowel disease, however, occult blood in stool is usually positive. Ileal adenocarcinoma is rare. Meckel’s diverticulum can possibly lea to obstruction but the findings described here are more consistent with obstruction due to peritoneal adhesions from a past surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal

      Explanation:

      The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45 year-old female presents with a drooping eyelid. During examination, the same...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year-old female presents with a drooping eyelid. During examination, the same pupil of the patient is found to be dilated. Which nerve could be involve in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve controls most of the eye muscles. It also controls the constriction of the pupils and thickening of the lens of the eye. This can be tested in two main ways. By moving a finger toward a person’s face to induce accommodation, their pupils should constrict or shining a light into one eye should result in equal constriction of the other eye. The neurons in the optic nerve decussate in the optic chiasm with some crossing to the contralateral optic nerve tract. This is the basis of the swinging-flashlight test. Loss of accommodation and continued pupillary dilation can indicate the presence of a lesion of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse. Her ECG showed absent P-waves with irregular RR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. It is often asymptomatic but may present with symptoms of palpitations, fainting, chest pain and heart failure. Characteristic findings are: absence of P-waves, unorganised electrical activity in their place, irregularity of RR interval due to irregular conduction of impulses to the ventricles and if paroxysmal AF is suspected, episodes may be documented with the use of Holter monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after a streptococcal infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephritic syndrome (or acute nephritic syndrome) is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephritis. Children between 2 and 12 are most commonly affected, but it may occur at any age. Predisposing factors/causes include:

      Infections with group A streptococcal bacteria (acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).

      Primary renal diseases: immunoglobulin A nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis.

      Secondary renal diseases: subacute bacterial endocarditis, infected ventriculo–peritoneal shunt, glomerulonephritis with visceral abscess, glomerulonephritis with bacterial, viral or parasitic infections.

      Multisystem diseases.

      By contrast, nephrotic syndrome is characterized by only proteins moving into the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.

      Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left middle suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      Middle suprarenal arteries arise from either side of the abdominal aorta, opposite the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left chest. The tip of the pen knife entered the pleural space just above the cardiac notch. Luckily the lung was spared as it would only occupy this space during deep inspiration. Which of these structures was pierced by the knife?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is located immediately next to the cardiac notch. The medial aspect of the superior lobe of the left lung, when fully inflated expands to this place. The lung wouldn’t enter the anterior or the posterior mediastinum which are found between the two pleural cavities.

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity where the inferior lobes of the lungs would expand into in deep inhalation.

      The cupola, is the part of the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib into the root of the neck. The superior most part of the superior lobe of the lung might extend into this part.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold that is located below the root of the lung where the visceral pleura and the mediastinal pleura are in continuity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What occurs during cellular atrophy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What occurs during cellular atrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cell size decreases

      Explanation:

      Atrophy is the decrease in the size of cells, tissues, or organs. There are several causes including inadequate nutrition, poor circulation, loss of hormonal support or nerve supply, disuse, lack of exercise, or disease. An increase in cell size is termed hypertrophy which is distinguished from hyperplasia, in which the cells remain approximately the same size but increase in number.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Urology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral pudendal nerve block. In order to inject the anaesthetic agent near the pudendal nerve a anaesthetic consultant had to insert a finger into the vagina and press laterally to palpate which landmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischial spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spine is always palpated through the walls of the vagina when performing a transvaginal pudendal nerve block and can easily be palpated on the lateral wall of the vagina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Incorrect

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40-year old gentleman, known with a history of peptic ulcer disease, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman, known with a history of peptic ulcer disease, was brought to the clinic in a dehydrated state with persistent vomiting. His blood investigations revealed:
      • sodium = 142 mmol/l
      • potassium = 2.6 mmol/l
      • chloride = 85 mmol/l
      • pH = 7.55
      • p(CO2) = 50 mmHg
      • p(O2) = 107 mmHg
      • standard bicarbonate = 40 mmol/l
      This patient has a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      High pH with high standard bicarbonate indicates metabolic alkalosis. The pa(CO2) was appropriately low in compensation. This is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis due to prolonged vomiting. Treatment includes treating the cause and intravenous sodium chloride with potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after complaining of sudden, severe upper back pain and a ripping sensation, that radiated to his neck. On arrival, his pulse was weak in one arm compared with the other however his ECG result was normal. Which of the following is most probably the cause of these findings and symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is a serious condition in which the inner layer of the aorta tears and the blood flows in between the inner and middle layers of the aorta causing their separation (dissection). Aortic dissection can lead to rupture or decreased blood flow to organs. Clinical manifestations most often include the sudden onset of severe, tearing or ripping chest pain that can radiate to the shoulder, back or neck; syncope; altered mental status; dyspnoea; pale skin; stroke symptoms etc. The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection is based on clinical findings, imaging studies, electrocardiography and laboratory analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen...

    Incorrect

    • Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen in on the blood count of a middle-aged lady about to undergo elective surgery. On enquiry, she mentions feeling tired for a few months. Which of the following investigations should be carried out in her to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of MCV indicates megaloblastic anaemia, which are associated with hypersegmented neutrophils. Likely causes include vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Megaloblastic anaemia results from defective synthesis of DNA. As RNA production continues, the cells enlarge with a large nucleus. The cytoplasmic maturity becomes greater than nuclear maturity. Megaloblasts are produced initially in the marrow, before blood. Dyspoiesis makes erythropoiesis ineffective, causing direct hyperbilirubinemia and hyperuricemia. As all cell lines are affected, reticulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia develop. Large, oval blood cells (macro-ovalocytes) are released in the circulation, along with presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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Physiology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
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