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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl, haematocrit 37%, mean corpuscular volume 90 fl, platelet count 185 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 32 × 109/l; along with multiple, small mature lymphocytes on peripheral smear. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:CLL or chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common leukaemia seen in the Western world. Twice more common in men than women, the incidence of CLL increases with age. About 75% cases are seen in patients aged more than 60 years. The blood, marrow, spleen and lymph nodes all undergo infiltration, eventually leading to haematopoiesis (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and decreased production of immunoglobulin. In 98% cases, CD+5 B cells undergo malignant transformation.
Often diagnosed on blood tests while being evaluated for lymphadenopathy, CLL causes symptoms like fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, pallor, dyspnoea on exertion, abdominal fullness or distension. Findings include multiple lymphadenopathy with minimal-to- moderate hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Increased susceptibility to infections is seen. Herpes Zoster is common. Diffuse or maculopapular skin infiltration can also be seen in T-cell CLL.
Diagnosis is by examination of peripheral blood smear and marrow: hallmark being a sustained, absolute leucocytosis (>5 ×109/l) and increased lymphocytes in the marrow (>30%). Other findings can include hypogammaglobulinemia (<15% of cases) and, rarely, raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Only 10% cases demonstrate moderate anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%
Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%
Monocytes: 2 to 8%
Eosinophils: 1 to 4%
Basophils: 0.5 to 1%
Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 3
Correct
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A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus
Explanation:Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?
Your Answer: Dorsal scapular
Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal
Explanation:Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An ECG of a 30 year old woman revealed low voltage QRS complexes. This patient is most probably suffering from?
Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Pericardial effusion
Explanation:The QRS complex is associated with current that results in the contraction of both the ventricles. As ventricles have more muscle mass than the atria, they result in a greater deflection on the ECG. The normal duration of a QRS complex is 10s. A wide and deep Q wave depicts myocardial infarction. Abnormalities in the QRS complex maybe indicative of a bundle block, ventricular tachycardia or hypertrophy of the ventricles. Low voltage QRS complexes are characteristic of pericarditis or a pericardial effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:
Your Answer: Second costal cartilage
Explanation:The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma to the side of the head over the temporal region:
Your Answer: Anterior meningeal artery
Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery
Explanation:The middle meningeal artery normally arises from the first or mandibular segment of the maxillary artery. The artery runs in a groove on the inside of the cranium, this can clearly be seen on a lateral skull X-ray. An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?
Your Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it
Explanation:The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing for erection. From which of the following nerves do these fibres originate?
Your Answer: Pudendal
Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnics
Explanation:Pelvic splanchnic nerves are examples of the parasympathetic nerves that innervate the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvic viscera. They are also the nerves contributing fibres to the prostatic plexus which innervate penile erectile tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?
Your Answer: Cerebral abscess
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?
Your Answer: Hilar reflection
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.
Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.
Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 14
Incorrect
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During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Left pulmonary vein
Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein
Explanation:The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?
Your Answer: Aspirin ingestion
Correct Answer: Scurvy
Explanation:Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?
Your Answer: Uterine tubes
Correct Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Coagulation in the body (in vivo) is a process in which several proteins known as coagulation factors are activated in a cascade effect to stop bleeding. Which of the following initiates this cascade effect?
Your Answer: Factor VII
Correct Answer: Tissue factor
Explanation:Tissue factor (TF), also known as ‘factor III’ or ‘thromboplastin’, is an anti-coagulation protein that initiates the extrinsic coagulation. TF acts as a transmembrane receptor for Factor VII/VIIa . It is expressed by endothelial cells but also certain tissues, such as the heart and brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 18
Correct
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Regarding the posterior compartment of the leg, which is correct?
Your Answer: The muscles plantarflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve
Explanation:The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. Deep muscles include tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus. The superficial ( calf muscles) which are responsible for plantarflexion of the foot are supplied by the tibial nerve as follows: the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are supplied by the first and second sacral nerves and the plantaris by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerve (the tibial nerve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80 year-old quadriplegic man has been lying supine for 7 weeks in a critical care ward. He develops a right lung abscess that is draining by gravity to a particular region of the lung. Which is the most likely site of pus collection?
Your Answer: Middle lobe
Correct Answer: Superior segment of the lower lobe
Explanation:The superior segmental bronchus of the lower lobe of the right lung branches posteriorly off the intermediate bronchus or the inferior lobe bronchus. It is therefore more likely to receive fluid or foreign bodies that enter the right main bronchus especially when the patient is supine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:
Your Answer: Thirst
Correct Answer: Hyperaesthesia
Explanation:Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:
Your Answer: Increased ICF volume
Correct Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II
Explanation:Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding the long head of the biceps femoris, which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: It arises from the same point as the gracilis muscle
Correct Answer: It crosses two joints
Explanation:The long head of the biceps femoris arises from the lower and inner impression on the back of the tuberosity of the ischium. It inserts with the short head in an aponeurosis which becomes a tendon and this tendon is inserted into the lateral side of the head of the fibula and the lateral condyle of the tibia, thus crossing two joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?
Your Answer: First lumbar
Correct Answer: Fourth thoracic
Explanation:The superior mediastinum lies between the manubrium anteriorly and the upper vertebrae of the thorax posteriorly. Below, it is bound by a slightly oblique plane that passes backward from the sternal angle to the lower part of the body of T4 and laterally by the pleura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?
Your Answer: Progesterone is produced by the zona fasciculata
Correct Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:
Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone
Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone
Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone
Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 25
Correct
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Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of:
Your Answer: 1.5–4.0 m/s
Explanation:Purkinje fibres control the heart rate along with the sinoatrial node (SA node) and the atrioventricular node (AV node). The QRS complex is associated with the impulse passing through the Purkinje fibres. These fibres conduct action potential about six times faster than the velocity in normal cardiac muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT?
Your Answer: The tendon of the brachioradialis muscle runs through it
Correct Answer: It prevents the tendons of the posterior compartment of the forearm from ‘bowstringing’ when the hand is extended at the wrist
Explanation:This extensor retinaculum, as the name indicates, holds the tendons of the extensors against the dorsal surface of the distal radius and ulna. Therefore, the correct answer is that it prevents bowstringing of the extensor tendons with wrist extension. It forms compartments between it and its bony attachment, and these compartments guide and hold the tendons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 27
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Astrocytoma
Explanation:Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?
Your Answer: Vital capacity and residual volume
Correct Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume
Explanation:Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Correct
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Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?
Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy with facial oedema was brought to the hospital by his parents. Renal function is normal and urinalysis revealed the presence of a profound proteinuria. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minimal-change disease
Explanation:Minimal-change disease (MCD) refers to a histopathologic glomerular lesion, typically found in children, that is almost always associated with nephrotic syndrome. The most noticeable symptom of MCD is oedema, which can develop very rapidly. Due to the renal loss of proteins muscle wasting and growth failure may be seen in children. Renal function is usually not affected and a proteinuria of more than 40 mg/h/m2 is the only abnormal finding in urinalysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
