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  • Question 1 - A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial rash and shortness of breath. Her mother reported that, prior to the symptoms, she took Co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) for her present ear infection. She also reported that she had no previous exposure to penicillin or any other related antibiotics.

      Which of the following can help to differentiate between type 1 and type II hypersensitivity reaction in this case?

      Your Answer: Serum mast cell tryptase > 11.5 ng/mL

      Correct Answer: IgE assay specific for amoxycilloyl

      Explanation:

      Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

      Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95–100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

      An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

      RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

      Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base...

    Correct

    • Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?

      Your Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1

      Explanation:

      The following units are derived SI units of measurement.

      Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
      The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.

      Power: kg.m2.s-3
      The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.

      Force: kg.m.s-2
      One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

      Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
      The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.

      Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
      A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man is to be operated.
     
    His past history is significant for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is to be operated.
       
      His past history is significant for a stroke, and some residual neurological deficit. The cranial nerves are examined clinically. He is unable to rotate his head to the left side when resistance is applied. Moreover, there is tongue wasting on the right side. There are no unusual sensory signs and symptoms.

      The most likely reason for these clinical findings is?

      Your Answer: Damage to glossopharyngeal (IX) and hypoglossal (XII) nerves

      Correct Answer: Damage to hypoglossal (XII) and spinal accessory (XI) nerves

      Explanation:

      The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.

      The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.

      The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.

      The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.

      Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Is more permeable to water soluble drugs

      Correct Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer: Prilocaine toxicity

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      55.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting...

    Correct

    • A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute.

      Which value best approximates to the FiO2?

      Your Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.

      For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.

      The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The following results were obtained In a new drug trial:

    Improved Not improved
    Placebo...

    Incorrect

    • The following results were obtained In a new drug trial:

      Improved Not improved
      Placebo group 36 26
      Treatment group 44 16

      Regarding the statistical analysis or interpretation of the trial, One of these is true

      Your Answer: A Student's t-test could be used

      Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test

      Explanation:

      This data is in a 2 × 2 contingency table so a chi square test can be used. There is a special chi squared formula that gives a value that can be looked up in a table giving the p value.

      Since we are comparing proportions not means, the Student’s t test CANNOT be used.

      There is no linear regression to plot so Pearson’s co-efficient cannot be calculated.

      Nothing is so obvious that no statistical analysis is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is? ...

    Correct

    • A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?

      Your Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      292.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.

      He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?

      Your Answer: A plot of % response against drug concentration gives a sigmoid shape

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

      Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

      Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?

      Your Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms

      Explanation:

      Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O

      The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
      Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.

      Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.

      The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy...

    Incorrect

    • Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.

      The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?

      Your Answer: Longer expiratory time

      Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop

      Explanation:

      A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work

      In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.

      The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer: Has a small volume of distribution.

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located.

      What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

      The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

      The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
      An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?

      Your Answer: T1a

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).

      Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Correct

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      90.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct....

    Correct

    • With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.

      Your Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.

      The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.

      These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.

      Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that...

    Incorrect

    • During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.

      How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (43.9-37.3)

      ARR= 6.6

      NNT= 1000/6.6

      NNT=151.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is...

    Incorrect

    • One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.

      Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?

      Your Answer: 0.42 seconds

      Correct Answer: 42 seconds

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?

      Your Answer: Is activated by oxygen free radicals

      Correct Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.

      Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).

      Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      291
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a...

    Incorrect

    • Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.

      It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Pancuronium

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a  concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction.  Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.

      By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.

      Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.

      A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      822.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Pyrexia

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?

      Your Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.

      ASA I A normal healthy patient
      ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
      ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
      ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
      ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

      A 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II

      A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II

      A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III

      A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II

      A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      127.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer: Dehydronorketamine

      Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      207.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle pump

      Correct Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      910.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer: It is directionally proportional to the Faraday constant

      Correct Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      270.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:

      Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
      K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
      Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
      HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
      BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
      Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
      Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)

      Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?

      Your Answer: 295-299

      Correct Answer: 300-313

      Explanation:

      Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.

      Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:

      Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L

      Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.

      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      243.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer: The transparent catheter is 100 cm in length

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      136.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer: Tingling - 5 mA

      Correct Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      346.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric ischemia. She is quickly shifted to the operation theatre for an emergency laparotomy.

      On exploration, the segment of the colon from the splenic flexure down to the rectum is ischemic.

      The artery blocked in this scenario arises at what vertebral level from the aorta?

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The hindgut is from the distal third of the transverse colon down to the upper one-third of the anal canal. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta behind the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum 3–4 cm above the aortic bifurcation, at the third lumbar vertebra level.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Transverse arytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.

      The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      102.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.

    Multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.

      Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.

      It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.

      On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.

      Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer: Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

      The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.

      The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.

      The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.

      The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.

      The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      108.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.

      Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer: It is highly protein bound

      Correct Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      157.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of...

    Incorrect

    • When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:

      Your Answer: Partial

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      166.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Of the stated laws, which is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of the stated laws, which is correct?

      Your Answer: Beer's law; states that each layer of equal thickness absorbs an equal fraction of radiation, which passes through it.

      Correct Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.

      Explanation:

      Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.

      Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.

      Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.

      Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.

      Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      185.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to...

    Incorrect

    • A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator.

      Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.

      Your Answer: Capacitor

      Correct Answer: Rectifier

      Explanation:

      There are two types of defibrillators
      AC defibrillator
      DC defibrillator

      AC defibrillator,
      consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.

      DC defibrillator,
      consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.

      Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.

      Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.

      Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.

      In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      122.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein...

    Correct

    • The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?

      Your Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein

      Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.

      One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal...

    Correct

    • A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.

      Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.

      On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.

      Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.

      This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.

      The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.

      Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      338
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves...

    Incorrect

    • The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.

      Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?

      Your Answer: High carbohydrate, high fat and low protein

      Correct Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.

      CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

      CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

      The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.

      Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

      Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
      Fats – RQ = 0.7
      Proteins – RQ is 0.9
      Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      127.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?

      Your Answer: Class I has double insulation for all equipment

      Correct Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      142.4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter...

    Incorrect

    • The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter inserted:

      Pulse rate - 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure - 120/70mmHg
      Mean central venous pressure (MCVP) - 10mmHg
      Right ventricular pressure (RVP) - 30/4 mmHg
      Mean pulmonary artery wedge pressure (MPAWP) - 12mmHg

      Which value best approximates the patient's coronary perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer: 54mmHg

      Correct Answer: 58mmHg

      Explanation:

      Coronary perfusion pressure(CPP), the difference between aortic diastolic pressure (Pdiastolic) and the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), is mainly determined by the formula:

      CPP = Pdiastolic -LVEDP
      where
      Pdiastolic is the lowest pressure in the aorta before left ventricular ejection and
      LVEDP is measured directly during a cardiac catheterisation or indirectly using a pulmonary artery catheter. The pulmonary artery occlusion or wedge pressure approximates best with LVEDP.

      Using this patient’s haemodynamic data:

      CPP = Pdiastolic – MPAWP
      COO = 70 – 12 = 58mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      259
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.

      Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.

      Your Answer: 1.25 ml/minute

      Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.

      Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.

      It is represented mathematically as:
      Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
      where,
      U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
      V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
      P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)

      Therefore, in this case:
      CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
      0.1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his...

    Correct

    • A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.

      History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.

      The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.

      Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.

      Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.

      When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      99.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.

      CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.

      Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?

      Your Answer: 1 mg IV adrenaline and 300 mg IV amiodarone should be administered

      Correct Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C

      Explanation:

      The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

      In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

      If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
      Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
      There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

      In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

      DC shocks are used as usual.
      Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

      Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

      Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer: It is derived from the blood pressure and heart rate

      Correct Answer: It decreases during normal sleep

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.

      Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).

      BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.

      BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.

      BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      125.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow when occluded surgically?

      Your Answer: Left hepatic artery

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein arises from the splenic and mesenteric veins, and is the biggest vessel in the portal venous system, accounting for about 75% of the hepatic blood flow.

      It is responsible for draining blood from parts of the gastrointestinal system, the spleen, the pancreas and the gallbladder into the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      384.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.

      Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Release of the tourniquet

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.

      Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.

      Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.

      A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?

      Your Answer: Isoflurane at 2.3%

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%

      Explanation:

      The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

      Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
      Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
      Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
      Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
      Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
      Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      108.6
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?

      Your Answer: Catecholamines

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.

      Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.

      Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.

      On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.

      What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      130.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?

      Your Answer: Three

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.

      There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      115
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer: Nitrous oxide cylinders are indigo blue

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      323.7
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.

      Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.

      Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?

      Your Answer: Change in plasma concentration is not linear

      Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Explanation:

      Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

      There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

      In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

      In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

      Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.

      The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.

      The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.

      No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      105.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia and lacrimation

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).

      ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:

      Salivation
      Lacrimation
      Defecation
      Micturition
      Sweating
      Miosis
      Bradycardia, and
      Bronchospasm.

      Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.

      SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      110
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).

      Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?

      Your Answer: Total body weight

      Correct Answer: Lean body weight

      Explanation:

      Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.

      This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.

      A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.

      Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.

      Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.

      Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      55477.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.

      Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.

      The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.

      Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.

      Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
      Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.

      What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - About the vagus nerve, which one of these is true ? ...

    Incorrect

    • About the vagus nerve, which one of these is true ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gives off the recurrent laryngeal nerve on the right as it passes anteriorly across the subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve) has both sensory and motor divisions.

      It emerges from the anterolateral surface of the medulla in a groove between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle as a series of 8-10 rootlets . It leaves the skull through the middle compartment of the jugular foramen and descends within the carotid sheath between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein. The right vagus crosses in front of the first part of the subclavian artery. It gives off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve at this point.

      The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around the ligamentum arteriosum.

      The external laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the other laryngeal muscles.

      The cranial part of the accessory nerve supplies all the muscles of the palate, via the pharyngeal plexus and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve, except the tensor veli palatini which is supplied by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.

      The Sternothyroid, Sternohyoid, and Omohyoid muscles are supplied by the ansa cervicalis while the thyrohyoid muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External circumference (mm)

      Explanation:

      Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

      A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

      A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

      When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse on lying flat. The doctor suspects gastroesophageal reflux due to a hiatus hernia. Lifestyle modifications to lose weight and antacids are prescribed to her.

      At which level of the diaphragm will you find an opening for this problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm. A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through an opening in the diaphragm, the oesophageal hiatus, into the thorax. The oesophageal hiatus occurs at the level of T10 in the right crus of the diaphragm.

      Other important openings in the diaphragm:
      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

      An opening in the diaphragm is called a hiatus. The oesophageal hiatus is at vertebral level T10. A hiatus hernia is where the stomach bulges through the oesophageal hiatus hence the name – hiatus hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor

      Explanation:

      Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.

      Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.

      Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - In which of the following situations will a regional fall in cerebral blood...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following situations will a regional fall in cerebral blood flow occur, suppose there is no changes in the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperoxia

      Explanation:

      The response of cerebral blood flow (CBF) to hyperoxia (PaO2 >15 kPa, 113 mmHg), the cerebral oxygen vasoreactivity is less well defined. A study originally described, using a nitrous oxide washout technique, a reduction in CBF of 13% and a moderate increase in cerebrovascular resistance in subjects inhaling 85-100% oxygen. Subsequent human studies, using a variety of differing methods, have also shown CBF reductions with hyperoxia, although the reported extent of this change is variable. Another study assessed how supra-atmospheric pressures influenced CBF, as estimated by changes in middle cerebral artery flow velocity (MCAFV) in healthy individuals. Atmospheric pressure alone had no effect on MCAFV if PaO2 was kept constant. Increases in PaO2 did lead to a significant reduction in MCAFV; however, there were no further reductions in MCAFV when oxygen was increased from 100% at 1 atmosphere of pressure to 100% oxygen at 2 atmospheres of pressure. This suggests that the ability of cerebral vasculature to constrict in response to increasing partial pressure of oxygen is limited.

      Increases in arterial blood CO2 tension (PaCO2) elicit marked cerebral vasodilation.

      CBF increases with general anaesthesia, ketamine anaesthesia, and hypoviscosity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region.

      On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg.

      The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.

      Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.

      Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.

      Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One terabyte is equal...

    Incorrect

    • Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes

      Explanation:

      To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

      1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
      1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
      1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
      1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
      1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Incorrect

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result...

    Incorrect

    • Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.

      How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean

      Explanation:

      Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.

      Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.

      Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:

      Undamped: 0
      Critically damped: 1
      Optimally damped: 0.64

      An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.

      An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.

      Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:

      The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
      The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
      The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.

      The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.

      Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.

      Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from...

    Incorrect

    • What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from proximal to distal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs

      Explanation:

      The tracheobronchial tree is subdivided into the conducting and the respiratory zones.

      The zones from proximal to distal are:

      Trachea
      Bronchi
      Bronchioles
      Terminal bronchioles
      Respiratory bronchioles
      Alveolar ducts
      Alveolar sacs

      from the trachea to terminal bronchioles are the conducting zone while the respiratory zone is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveola sacs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium

      Explanation:

      Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

      It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

      Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted...

    Incorrect

    • In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted compared to the conventional use of mammography. This test predicts that if the breast cancer is diagnosed at an earlier stage, it could improve the survival rate but the overall results remains constant.

      This is an example of what kind of bias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically.

      Self Selection or volunteer bias occur when those subjects are selected to participate in the study who are not the representative of the entire target population. those subjects may be from high socio-economic status and practice those activities or lifestyle that improves their health.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 77 - Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It originates from the 7th cervical vertebra

      Explanation:

      The costal elements of the seventh cervical vertebrae form projections known as cervical ribs, which are present in approximately 0.5% – 1 % individuals.

      A cervical rib commonly comprises of a head, neck and tubercle. The body of the rib varies from person to person. It extends into the posterior triangle of the neck, where it is either free anteriorly, or attached to the first rib / sternum.

      Patients with a cervical rib mostly are asymptomatic and it is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding on chest x-ray. However, in some cases, the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus are compressed where they pass over the cervical rib. This leads to a condition known as ”neurovascular compression syndrome,” in which these neurovascular structures are compressed between the cervical rib and scalenus anterior.

      The most common cause of neurogenic symptoms in approximately 80% of the patients with cervical rib is neck trauma.

      In most cases, the tingling, numbness and impaired circulation to the upper limb appears only after puberty. This is because the neck elongates, and the shoulders droop slightly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 78 - Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1120 mg

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
      It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

      Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
      16×70 = 1120 mg.

      Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 79 - A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
      What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production

      Explanation:

      Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.

      Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA

      Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 80 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 81 - Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for...

    Incorrect

    • Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.

      This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4

      Explanation:

      Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.

      The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.

      It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.

      For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 82 - A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent...

    Incorrect

    • A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).

      Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neonate

      Explanation:

      The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
      3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosis

      Young children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.

      At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.

      When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.

      Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 83 - Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature

      Explanation:

      A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.

      Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.

      Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 84 - Which of the following ionic changes is associated with the ventricular myocyte action...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ionic changes is associated with the ventricular myocyte action potential's initial repolarization phase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ceased Na+ and increase K+ conductances

      Explanation:

      The Purkinje system, as well as the action potentials of ventricular and atrial myocytes, have the same ionic changes. It lasts about 200 milliseconds and has a resting membrane potential, as well as fast depolarisation and plateau phases.

      There are five stages to the process:

      Increased Na+ and decreased K+ conductance in Phase 0 (rapid depolarisation).
      1st phase (initial repolarisation) : Na+ conductance decreased, while K+ conductance increased.
      Phase two (plateau phase) : Ca2+ conductance increased
      Phase three (repolarisation phase) : Lower Ca2+ conductance and higher K+ conductance
      4th Phase (resting membrane potential) : K+ conductance increased, Na+ conductance decreased, and Ca2+ conductance decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 85 - The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?...

    Incorrect

    • The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.

      There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).

      Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
      They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.

      Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.

      New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.

      Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 86 - Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced...

    Incorrect

    • Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.

      Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

      Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

      The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
      Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
      Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
      Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
      Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 87 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 88 - All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Starvation

      Explanation:

      Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

      Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

      Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

      If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
      It is not catabolised during starvation.
      Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

      Causes of low albumin are

      1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
      2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
      3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
      4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 89 - A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
      On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.

      Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.

      The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.

      However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 90 - Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:...

    Incorrect

    • Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptors in pre and post ganglionic synapses

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 91 - All of the following are part of the endocrine response to uncontrolled bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are part of the endocrine response to uncontrolled bleeding except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased secretion of insulin

      Explanation:

      With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

      1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
      2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
      3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
      4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
      5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

      A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
      6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
      7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

      Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
      8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
      9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
      10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
      Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 92 - Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death

      Explanation:

      Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 93 - Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heliox

      Explanation:

      Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:

      1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO₂ level of 94 98%.
      2. Use high-dose inhaled ?₂ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
      intravenous ?₂ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
      3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
      4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
      5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.

      A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.

      Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 94 - General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which...

    Incorrect

    • General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C.

      Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Density of the gas

      Explanation:

      Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.

      At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.

      Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.

      Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.

      Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 95 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Incorrect

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicectomy

      Explanation:

      Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
      the total use of antibiotics.
      There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
      prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:

      • Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
        the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
        penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)
      • Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
      • Breast cancer surgery
      • Hysterectomy
      • Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
      • Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
        regions
      • Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
        tract infection and blood poisoning).

      In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
      which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 96 - With a cervical dilation of 7 cm, a 33-year-old term primigravida is in...

    Incorrect

    • With a cervical dilation of 7 cm, a 33-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.

      The cardiotocograph shows late foetal pulse decelerations, and a pH of 7.24 was found in the recent foetal scalp blood sample.

      Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time

      Explanation:

      Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the baby’s risk and the mother’s safety.

      There are four types of caesarean section urgency:

      Category 1: A threat to the life of the mother or the foetus. 30 minutes to make a delivery decision
      Category 2 : Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening. In most cases, the decision to deliver is made within 75 minutes.
      Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
      Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.

      There may be evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (late foetal pulse decelerations and a borderline pH).

      Blood samples from the foetus:
      normal: 7.25 or above
      borderline: 7.21 to 7.24
      abnormal: 7.20 or below

      When a foetal deceleration occurs, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and given a tocolytic if the foetal deceleration is hyper stimulating. Maintaining adequate hydration will reduce the likelihood of a caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 97 - A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 98 - Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.

      Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Highly ionised

      Explanation:

      Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

      The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

      Protein binding
      Degree of ionisation
      Placental blood flow
      Maternal and foetal blood pH
      Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
      Thickness of placental membrane
      Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
      Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

      Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 99 - Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin.

      Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion

      Explanation:

      The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:

      Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
      Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
      The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
      Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.

      Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.

      The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.

      The following are some basic assumptions:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
      One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
      The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
      The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
      The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
      The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
      The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 100 - Which among the given options can be used to find out the number...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the given options can be used to find out the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 101 - A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.

      Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.

      The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 102 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 103 - An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The drug concentration in the syringe is 5 mg/mL. The drug's plasma clearance is 20 L/hour.

      Which of the following values, assuming that the infusion rate remains constant, best approximates the drug's plasma concentration at steady state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

      Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

      ID = Cpss × CL

      We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

      ID = Cpss × 20

      Therefore,

      Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

      Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 104 - Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level

      Explanation:

      The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.

      The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.

      A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.

      A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.

      The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.

      The level of significance is set at p <0.05.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 105 - After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the...

    Incorrect

    • After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the tricuspid valve.

      Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the right atrium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trabeculae carnae

      Explanation:

      The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.

      The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

      The trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 106 - A 72-year-old female is diagnosed with acute mesenteric ischemia.

    On CT angiogram, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female is diagnosed with acute mesenteric ischemia.

      On CT angiogram, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery is stenosed.

      At which vertebra level does the superior mesenteric artery branch from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The superior mesenteric artery branches from the abdominal aorta just 1-2 cm below the origin of the celiac trunk. It lies posterior to the body of the pancreas and splenic vein and is separated from the aorta by the left renal vein. It passes forwards and inferiorly, anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas and the third part of the duodenum, to enter the root of the small bowel mesentery and supply the midgut.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm

      T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 107 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 108 - A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.

      Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate action that should follow is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change

      Explanation:

      Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.

      Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.

      A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 109 - Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emulsification of lipids

      Explanation:

      The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.

      Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.

      Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).

      Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .

      The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 110 - The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through...

    Incorrect

    • The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through the chambers of the heart and the pulmonary artery.

      Which of the following options best describes the sequence of pressures measured at the catheter's tip during its passage through a normal patient's pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0-12 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg and 8-12 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve allows the tip of a pulmonary artery catheter to pass through the right atrium and into the right ventricle.

      The balloon will be inflated before crossing the pulmonary valve and entering the pulmonary artery, where it will eventually wedge or occlude the artery, providing an indirect measure of left atrial pressure.

      0-12 mmHg in the right atrium
      2-25 mmHg in the right ventricle
      12-25 mmHg in the pulmonary artery
      8-12 mmHg is the occlusion pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 111 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 112 - A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

      On clinical examination, the following were the findings:
      Pulse: 120 beats per minute
      BP: 120/95 mmHg
      Respiratory rate: 22 breaths per minute
      Capillary refill time: three seconds
      Cool peripheries.

      Which of the following best describes the cause for this clinical finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%

      Explanation:

      Classification of hemorrhagic shock according to Advanced Trauma Life Support is as follows:

      – Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%) in which there is no change in blood pressure, RR, or pulse pressure.

      – Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss) where there is tachycardia, tachypnoea, and a decrease in pulse pressure.

      – Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss) where clinical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state, and measurable fall in systolic pressure is seen. It almost always requires a blood transfusion.

      – Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss) in which marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure, and markedly depressed mental state with cold and pale skin are seen.

      Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse, and blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 113 - You are shown the summary of a publication recommending use of their company's...

    Incorrect

    • You are shown the summary of a publication recommending use of their company's antiemetic to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting by a pharmaceutical representative. You read the article, which is in a peer reviewed journal, and consider whether to change your current practice of using cyclizine intraoperatively.

      Which type of publication will provide the best evidence on which to base changes to your practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres

      Explanation:

      A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres is the most likely to change your practice.

      Case controlled studies are efficient in identifying an association between a drug treatment and outcome and are usually conducted retrospectively. They are generally less valued than prospective randomised trials. They cannot generate incidence data, are subject to bias, have difficult selection of controls and can be made more difficult if note keeping is not reliable.

      The gold standard in intervention-based studies is randomised controlled double blind trials. Its features are:

      Treating all intervention groups identically
      Reduction of bias by random allocation to intervention groups
      Patients and researchers unaware of which treatment was given until at completion of study
      Patients analysed within the group to which they were allocated, and
      Analysis focused on estimating the size of the difference in predefined outcomes between intervention groups.

      New healthcare interventions should be evaluated through properly designed randomised controlled trials (though there are some potential ethical disadvantages)

      Conducting trials in multiple centres is an accepted way of evaluating a new drug as it may be the only way of recruiting sufficient number of patients within a reasonable time frame to satisfy the objectives of the trial. Type II statistical errors will occur if a small numbers of patients is used in study group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 114 - A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:

      Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
      Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
      CVP 20 mmHg
      SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen

      What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biventricular failure

      Explanation:

      The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).

      The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).

      The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.

      120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).

      With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.

      By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.

      Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 115 - Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion

      Explanation:

      Two mechanisms are responsible for autoregulation of RBF and GFR: one mechanism that responds to changes in arterial pressure and another that responds to changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid. Both regulate the tone of the afferent arteriole. The pressure-sensitive mechanism, the so-called myogenic mechanism, is related to an intrinsic property of vascular smooth muscle: the tendency to contract when stretched. Accordingly, when arterial pressure rises and the renal afferent arteriole is stretched, the smooth muscle contracts in response. Because the increase in resistance of the arteriole offsets the increase in pressure, RBF, and therefore GFR, remains constant.

      The second mechanism responsible for autoregulation of GFR and RBF is the [NaCl]-dependent mechanism known as tubuloglomerular feedback. This mechanism involves a feedback loop in which a change in GFR leads to alteration in the concentration of NaCl in tubular fluid, which is sensed by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and converted into signals that affect afferent arteriolar resistance and thus the GFR (Fig. 33.19). For example, when the GFR increases and causes [NaCl] in tubular fluid in the loop of Henle to rise, more NaCl enters the macula densa cells in this segment (Fig. 33.20). This leads to an increase in formation and release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP) by macula densa cells, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and normalization of GFR. In contrast, when GFR and [NaCl] in tubule fluid decrease, less NaCl enters the macula densa cells, and both ATP and adenosine production and release decline. The fall in [ATP] and [adenosine] results in afferent arteriolar vasodilation, which returns GFR to normal. NO, a vasodilator produced by the macula densa, attenuates tubuloglomerular feedback, whereas angiotensin II enhances tubuloglomerular feedback. Thus the macula densa may release both vasoconstrictors (e.g., ATP and adenosine) and a vasodilator (e.g., NO) that oppose each other’s action at the level of the afferent arteriole. Production plus release of either vasoconstrictors or vasodilators ensures exquisite control over tubuloglomerular feedback.

      Renal autoregulation, thus, reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal sodium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 116 - Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased resonance elevates the systolic and lower the diastolic pressures

      Explanation:

      The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.

      It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.

      The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.

      The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.

      A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 117 - One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case...

    Incorrect

    • One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker

      Explanation:

      For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.

      There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.

      Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 118 - Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered...

    Incorrect

    • Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.

      Why is this the best route of administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism

      Explanation:

      Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.

      An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.

      There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.

      GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.

      The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 119 - One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes...

    Incorrect

    • One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 120 - One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.

      The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:

      suxamethonium: 0.27
      rocuronium: 0.31
      vecuronium: 0.04
      pancuronium: 0.07
      cisatracurium: 0.04
      mivacurium: 0.08

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 121 - In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure and the age of a person.

      Which among the provided options is false regarding the calculation of correlation coefficient, r ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age

      Explanation:

      Correlation doesn’t justify causality. Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other? It has nothing to do with predictions. For that purpose linear regression is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 122 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 123 - Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

      Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 124 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 125 - The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any...

    Incorrect

    • The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.

      At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.

      The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
      1. Colour ultrasound sonography
      2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.

      This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
      Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
      Hepatoportal 58
      Kidney 420
      Brain 54
      Skin 13
      Skeletal muscle 2.7
      Heart 87
      Carotid body 2000
      Thyroid gland 560

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 126 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Incorrect

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 127 - With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in...

    Incorrect

    • With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.

      Early foetal pulse decelerations can be seen on the cardiotocograph, and a recent foetal scalp blood sample revealed a pH of 7.25.

      Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time

      Explanation:

      Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.

      There are four types of caesarean section urgency:

      Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
      Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
      Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
      Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.

      Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.

      In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.

      The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.

      There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.

      If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 128 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 129 - Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be...

    Incorrect

    • Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.

      Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffusion

      Explanation:

      Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

      Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
      Red blood cell – 5 µm
      Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
      Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
      Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
      Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

      Sieve:
      The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

      Interception:
      When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
      Diffusion:

      A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
      By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.

      Electrostatic:

      These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

      Impaction due to inertia:

      When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 130 - Patient’s having disease (Test Positive: 60, Test Negative:40)


    Patient’s not having...

    Incorrect

    • Patient’s having disease (Test Positive: 60, Test Negative:40)


      Patient’s not having the disease (Test Positive:20, Test Negative: 80)

      This is a result of a new tumour marker blood test, that was performed on 200 women for breast cancer screening. The director of the screening programme ask you to evaluate the observations and inform them the specificity of this new test.

      Which one of the following figure you will relay to the programme director?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as positive to all those who had positive test results. In this case, this is 60/(60+20)=75%.

      The negative predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as negative to all those who had negative test results. In this case, this is 80/(80+40)=67%.

      The sensitivity is the ratio of patients with the disease who test positive i.e. true positive patients to the total number of people with the disease. In this case, this is 60/(60+40)=60%.

      The specificity is the ratio of people who don’t have the disease who test negative i.e. true negatives to the total number of people without the disease. In this case, this is 80/(20+80)=80%.

      70% is not the result of any screening measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 131 - An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.

      Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.

      On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
      The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.

      At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 132 - Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.

      End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.

      There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 133 - Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).

      In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.

      Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.

      The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 134 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 135 - Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

      Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 136 - Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.

    In which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.

      In which of the following anatomic structures does ondansetron produce its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleus tractus solitarius

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor. 5HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and in the vomiting centre of the medulla participate in the vomiting reflex. They are particularly important in vomiting caused by chemical triggers such as cancer chemotherapy drugs.

      The nucleus solitarius is the recipient of all visceral afferents, and an essential part of the regulatory centres of the internal homeostasis, through its multiple projections with cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal regulatory centres. It participates in the reflexes of the nerves innervating the nucleus, so it mediates cough reflex, carotid sinus reflex, gag reflex, and vomiting reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 137 - The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 138 - A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.

      A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
      Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

      Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 139 - A new clinical trial evaluates the effect of a new drug Z on...

    Incorrect

    • A new clinical trial evaluates the effect of a new drug Z on all-cause mortality. The rate of death in the group receiving this drug is 8%, compared with 16% in the control group.

      What is the number needed to treat with drug Z to prevent death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat is a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death).

      It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction and is rounded to the next highest whole number.

      The absolute risk reduction is 8% (16% – 8%). 100/8 = 12.5, so rounding up the next integer this gives at NNT of 13. i.e. you would need to give the new drug to 13 people to ensure that you prevented one death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 140 - A man suffers damage to his vagus nerve during surgery on his neck....

    Incorrect

    • A man suffers damage to his vagus nerve during surgery on his neck. The vagus nerve is cut near its exit from the skull. The man loses his parasympathetic tone raising his heart rate and blood pressure.

      What other feature will be likely present with a vagus nerve injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoarse voice

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve with both autonomic and somatic effects. Its most important somatic effect is the motor supply to the larynx via recurrent laryngeal nerves. If one vagus nerve is damaged, the result will be the same as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness of voice.

      The vagus exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the accessory nerve.

      Anal tone, erections, and urination are all controlled by the sacral parasympathetic and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus. Parasympathetic controlled pupillary constriction is via the oculomotor nerve and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 141 - An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.

      This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
      At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.

      The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.

      Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 142 - Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit.

      You've been summoned to examine the patient because he's become oliguric.

      Which of the following is most likely to indicate that acute kidney injury is caused by a prerenal cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum urea: creatinine ratio 200

      Explanation:

      Prerenal failure has a serum urea: creatinine ratio of >100, while acute kidney injury has a ratio of 40.
      In prerenal failure, ADH levels are typically high, resulting in water, urea, and sodium resorption. The fractional sodium excretion is less than 1%, but it is greater than 2% in acute tubular necrosis.
      Prerenal azotaemia has higher serum urea nitrogen/serum creatinine ratios (>20), whereas acute tubular necrosis has lower ratios (10-15). The normal range is between 12 and 20.
      Urinary sodium is less than 20 in prerenal failure and greater than 40 in acute tubular necrosis.
      Prerenal failure has a urine osmolality of >500, while acute tubular necrosis has an osmolality of 350.
      Prerenal failure has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of >40, while acute tubular necrosis has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of 20.

      The concentrations of serum urea or creatinine change in inverse proportion to glomerular filtration. Changes in serum creatinine concentrations are more reliable than changes in serum urea concentrations in predicting GFR. Creatinine is produced at a constant rate from creatine, and blood concentrations are almost entirely determined by GFR.

      A number of factors influence urea formation, including liver function, protein intake, and protein catabolism rate. Urea excretion is also influenced by hydration status, the amount of water reabsorption, and GFR.

      A high serum creatinine level, as well as a urine output of less than 10 mL/hour and the production of concentrated looking urine, do not necessarily indicate a specific cause of oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 143 - Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow

      Explanation:

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
      When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

      Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

      When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

      Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 144 - A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical student, observes the surgery but is asked to scrub in and assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts the laryngoscope and asks Alex to locate the larynx.

      What anatomical landmark corresponds to the position of the larynx?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C3-C6

      Explanation:

      The larynx is an air passage, sphincter, and organ of phonation that extends from the tongue to the trachea. It lies in the anterior part of the neck at the vertebral levels C3 to C6.

      Important anatomical landmarks:
      C1-C2 – Atlas and axis, respectively

      C3-C6 – Larynx

      C5 – Thyroid cartilage

      T5-T7 – Pulmonary hilum

      T12-L1 – Duodenum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 145 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 146 - Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

      All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 147 - Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Produces glycoproteins

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus are connected by the pituitary stalk. It contains in the pituitary sella and has the optic chiasm and hypothalamus as superior relations.

      The anterior pituitary produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . These hormones are Glycoproteins and share a common alpha subunit with unique beta subunits.

      The secretion of pituitary hormones are pulsatile. Examples are LH, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 148 - Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular...

    Incorrect

    • Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.

      It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

      The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.

      The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.

      The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.

      The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 149 - All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.

      Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.

      Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.

      Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 150 - A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.

      There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:

      1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
      Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.

      2. The internal and external mammary pathway
      internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.

      3. The lateral thoracic pathway
      Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.

      4. The vertebral pathway
      Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 151 - The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know...

    Incorrect

    • The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
      Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.

      The remaining terms are made up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 152 - Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best describes it.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase, increases cGMP concentration leading to vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).

      Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.

      Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:

      1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
      2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
      3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 153 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 154 - A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal...

    Incorrect

    • A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.

      Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).

      Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.

      Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
      At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.

      As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.

      Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
      Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.

      Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 155 - The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which...

    Incorrect

    • The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which of the following structures do they primarily drain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrium

      Explanation:

      The heart has two venous drainage systems:
      1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
      2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heart

      Thebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 156 - A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's disease. She is eligible for surgery as medical treatment options have failed to control her symptoms and she is the sole guardian for her young children, so radioiodine treatment is unsuitable. While gaining her consent for the surgery, she is told of possible complications of thyroidectomy, which include damage to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

      What is the name of the sensory nerve that arises from the superior laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 157 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 158 - You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in...

    Incorrect

    • You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.

      Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

      Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

      Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

      Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

      Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

      Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 159 - A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas...

    Incorrect

    • A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed.

      Which set of results is most likely her own?

      Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2
      A - 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      B - 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      C - 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      D - 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 160 - Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver

      Explanation:

      When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

      50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.

      The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.

      There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 161 - An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram.

      What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?



      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.

      A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.

      The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
      1. Left gastric
      2. Common hepatic
      3. Splenic arteries

      There are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 162 - All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole parasympathetic control

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 163 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Incorrect

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 164 - A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles? ...

    Incorrect

    • A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched

      Explanation:

      The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.

      A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.

      Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.

      A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 165 - After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg....

    Incorrect

    • After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?

      Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 166 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 167 - A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He is diagnosed with a distal sigmoid colon carcinoma.

      Which artery is most likely to provide its blood supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the hindgut, which includes the sigmoid colon.

      Note that during high anterior resection of distal sigmoid colon tumours, the inferior mesenteric artery is ligated, interrupting blood supply.

      The branches of the internal iliac artery, particularly the middle rectal branch, are essential in retaining vascularity of the rectal stump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 168 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 169 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes tetany

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:

      Prolonged PR interval
      Prolonged QT interval
      Flattening of T waves
      ST segment depression
      Prominent U waves

      These changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.

      There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.

      There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.

      The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.

      A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 170 - A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.

      Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Villi

      Explanation:

      The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
      1. Mucosa
      2. Submucosa
      3. Muscularis Externa
      4. Adventitia

      Intestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.

      In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 171 - Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 172 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
      He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
      The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 173 - All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores

      Explanation:

      Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
      -cell homeostasis
      -coagulation
      -muscle contraction
      -neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
      -bone formation and skeletal strength
      -secretion processes

      99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
      -45% is free ionized calcium
      -45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
      -10% is present as an anion complex

      Reduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.

      Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
      -paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
      -tetany
      -spasm
      -muscle cramps
      -ECG changes (prolonged QT)
      -Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
      -Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)

      Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
      -cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
      respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizures

      Features of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
      -Abdominal pain
      -Vomiting
      -Constipation
      -Polyuria
      -Polydipsia
      -Depression
      -Lethargy
      -Anorexia
      -Weight loss
      -Hypertension
      -Confusion
      -Pyrexia
      -Calcification in the cornea
      -Renal stones
      -Renal failure
      -Decreased Q-T interval
      -Cardiac shock/collapse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 174 - Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally distributed in a population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will be approximately equal numbers who have more or less of the characteristic than the mean

      Explanation:

      68% of the population will be found in one standard deviation (SD) above plus one SD below the mean. Two SDs above plus two SDs below the mean will include 95% of the population.

      The median can be greater or less than the mean as it is simply the mid point of the data after the data is arranged. Half the data are above and half below the median .

      The mode is a true score, unlike the mean or the median. It is the most common score or the score obtained from the largest number of subjects in any given data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 175 - Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.

      The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
      – the right ventricle
      – part of the interventricular septum
      – the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
      – in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
      The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.

      The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.

      The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 176 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 177 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the given part of the tongue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior two thirds of tongue - facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

      The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

      Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

      All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 178 - The statement that best describes temperature management is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes temperature management is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gauge thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 179 - Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a potent inducer of liver cytochrome enzymes. Other enzyme inducers are:
      Carbamazepine
      Sodium valproate
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbitone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 180 - Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.

      Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths

      Explanation:

      This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:

      Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
      Increased closing capacity (CC)
      Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
      Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.

      Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 181 - A 45-year old male who was involved in a road traffic accident has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old male who was involved in a road traffic accident has had to receive a large blood transfusion of whole blood which is two weeks old. Which of these best describes the oxygen carrying capacity of this blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It will have an increased affinity for oxygen

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 182 - A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting and hypotension. The pathogenesis of this condition is derived from predominant cells of which cell line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor

      Explanation:

      A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
      B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
      C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
      D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
      E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.

      This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
      There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 183 - Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.

      It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.

      It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.

      It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.

      Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 184 - What does therapeutic index in humans mean? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does therapeutic index in humans mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The TD50 divided by the ED50

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.

      In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 185 - What is the primary purpose of funnel plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 186 - Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.

      Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.

      There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 187 - During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result...

    Incorrect

    • During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result of the oculocardiac reflex.

      The afferent limb of this reflex is formed by which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.

      The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.

      The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 188 - A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival...

    Incorrect

    • A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.

      What kind of bias is in this experiment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.

      Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 189 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 190 - At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.

      The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
      1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
      2. Thoracic constrictions:
      i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)

      Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 191 - What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 192 - About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?...

    Incorrect

    • About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.

      The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.

      Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
      Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
      Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 193 - A 67-year-old man, presents with an embolus in the lower limbs. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man, presents with an embolus in the lower limbs. He has previous medical history of atrial fibrillation. After examination and diagnostic investigations, he is scheduled for a transpopliteal embolectomy, which will require the surgeons to explore the central region of the popliteal fossa.

      What structures will the surgeons come across after incising the deep fascia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The tibial nerve lies on top of the vessels contained within the inferior aspect of the popliteal fossa.

      In the superior aspect of the fossa, the tibial nerve runs lateral to the vessels, before then travelling superficial to the vessels, and then finally changing course to lie medial to the vessels.

      The popliteal artery is the most deep structure present in the popliteal fossa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 194 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter.

      His vital readings are:

      Temperature: 38.1°C
      Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg)
      Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg)
      Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg
      Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg
      Cardiac output: 5 L/min
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%

      Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance.

      Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 195 - Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.

    Glucose...

    Incorrect

    • Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.

      Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?



      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.

      Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.

      Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.

      In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 196 - In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation can be used to provide control over the confounding variables during the design stage of a study however during analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. Since the question asks for the information that is factually incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 197 - A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.

      Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV

      Explanation:

      The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

      Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

      Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 198 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.

      Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 199 - How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?...

    Incorrect

    • How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
      – 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
      – 6 paired branches
      – unpaired median sacral artery.

      We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
      -Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
      -Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
      -Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
      -Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteries

      The celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.

      The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.

      The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 200 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (4/9) 44%
Basic Physics (1/2) 50%
Physiology (4/10) 40%
Clinical Measurement (5/7) 71%
Pharmacology (7/13) 54%
Statistical Methods (1/4) 25%
Anatomy (7/10) 70%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/4) 25%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
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