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Question 1
Correct
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Of the stated laws, which is correct?
Your Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.
Explanation:Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.
Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.
Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.
Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.
Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.
Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Adrenaline
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.
If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.
Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukotrienes
Explanation:Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.
The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.
The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:
Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.
TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.
PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.
PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.
Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.
Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.
Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.
Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).
In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.
Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.
The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.
Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.
Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: aPTT
Explanation:The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.
D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.
A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.
Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.
Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.
Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.
Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.
Explanation:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.
Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.
They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.
It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion is increased following haematemesis
Explanation:Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.
Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.
Which of the following physiological characteristics of a 5-year-old most closely resembles those of a healthy adult?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dead space ratio
Explanation:Whatever the age, the dead space ratio is 0.3. It’s the dead space (Vd) to tidal volume ratio (Vt).
The glottis is the narrowest point of the upper airway in an adult, while the cricoid ring is the narrowest point in a child.
A child’s airway resistance is much higher than an adult’s. The resistance to airflow increases as the diameter of a paediatric airway shrinks. The radius (r) to the power of 4 is inversely proportional to airway resistance (r4). As a result, paediatric patients are more susceptible to changes in airflow caused by a small reduction in airway diameter, such as caused by oedema.
The compliance of a newborn’s lungs is very low (5 mL/cmH2O), but it gradually improves as lung size and elasticity grow. Lung compliance in an adult is 200 mL/cmH2O.
In children, minute ventilation (mL/kg/minute) is much higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heavy smoker
Explanation:A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.
It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.
Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.
Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.
Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.
Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.
Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.
Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 15
Incorrect
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When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry
Explanation:Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The following results were obtained In a new drug trial:
Improved Not improved
Placebo group 36 26
Treatment group 44 16
Regarding the statistical analysis or interpretation of the trial, One of these is trueYour Answer:
Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:This data is in a 2 × 2 contingency table so a chi square test can be used. There is a special chi squared formula that gives a value that can be looked up in a table giving the p value.
Since we are comparing proportions not means, the Student’s t test CANNOT be used.
There is no linear regression to plot so Pearson’s co-efficient cannot be calculated.
Nothing is so obvious that no statistical analysis is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are shown the summary of a publication recommending use of their company's antiemetic to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting by a pharmaceutical representative. You read the article, which is in a peer reviewed journal, and consider whether to change your current practice of using cyclizine intraoperatively.
Which type of publication will provide the best evidence on which to base changes to your practice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres
Explanation:A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres is the most likely to change your practice.
Case controlled studies are efficient in identifying an association between a drug treatment and outcome and are usually conducted retrospectively. They are generally less valued than prospective randomised trials. They cannot generate incidence data, are subject to bias, have difficult selection of controls and can be made more difficult if note keeping is not reliable.
The gold standard in intervention-based studies is randomised controlled double blind trials. Its features are:
Treating all intervention groups identically
Reduction of bias by random allocation to intervention groups
Patients and researchers unaware of which treatment was given until at completion of study
Patients analysed within the group to which they were allocated, and
Analysis focused on estimating the size of the difference in predefined outcomes between intervention groups.New healthcare interventions should be evaluated through properly designed randomised controlled trials (though there are some potential ethical disadvantages)
Conducting trials in multiple centres is an accepted way of evaluating a new drug as it may be the only way of recruiting sufficient number of patients within a reasonable time frame to satisfy the objectives of the trial. Type II statistical errors will occur if a small numbers of patients is used in study group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of a combined or monotherapy was conducted. A forest plot was used for the visual representation of the data.
Which of the following is true regarding forest plots?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies
Explanation:Being the part of a meta analysis, forest plots are more valued as evidence then randomised control trials.
The notion that forest plots can only be used if the results are substantial is not true. They are good indicators of the significance of the data. If the diamond intersects the central line, the data is rendered significant. It also aggregates means and confidence intervals from studies conducted in the past which makes the study much more reliable as errors associated with individual studies tend to have less of an impact in this way.
The suggestion that forest plots are primarily used for qualitative data is factually incorrect. Forest plots require numerical values to function.
All in all, forest plots help us in determining whether or not there is a significant trend in that particular field of study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.
At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation:After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.
The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
1. Colour ultrasound sonography
2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
Hepatoportal 58
Kidney 420
Brain 54
Skin 13
Skeletal muscle 2.7
Heart 87
Carotid body 2000
Thyroid gland 560 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.
What is the name of this structure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.
The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.
The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding the information about kidney, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Each kidney contains approximately 1.2 million nephrons
Explanation:Each kidney is composed of about 1.2 million uriniferous tubules. Each tubule consists of two parts that are embryologically distinct from each other. They are as follows:
a) Excretory part, called the nephron, which elaborates urine
b) Collecting part which begins as a junctional tubule from the distal convoluted tubule.There are two types of nephrons in the kidney:
The cortical nephron comprises 80% of the total nephron and its major function is the excretion of waste products in urine whereas the juxtamedullary nephron comprises 20% of the total nephron and its major function is the concentration of urine by counter current mechanism.
In the superficial (cortical) nephrons, peritubular capillaries branch off the efferent arterioles and deliver nutrients to epithelial cells as well as serve as a blood supply for reabsorption and secretion. In juxtamedullary nephrons, the peritubular capillaries have a specialization called the vasa recta, which are long, hairpin-shaped blood vessels that follow the same course as a loop of Henle. The vasa recta serve as osmotic exchangers for the production of concentrated urine.The kidney receives about 25% of cardiac output and about 20% of this is filtered at the glomeruli of the kidney. Thus, renal blood flow is 1200 ml/minute and renal plasma flow is 650 ml/minute
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.
Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.
Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intercostal nerve block
Explanation:An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.
An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.
This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his physician. On examination, the lump is visible on coughing and is found within Hesselbach's triangle.
Which of the following is true regarding the borders for this triangle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.
The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle
Explanation:Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.
When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.
The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.
The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal.
Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.
The borders of the inguinal canal are:
Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.
Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon
Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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All of the following are responses to massive haemorrhage except which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased cardiac output by increased direct parasympathetic stimulation
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.
The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.
End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa
Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%.
Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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