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  • Question 1 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: 2nd Meiotic Division

      Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.7
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

      Your Answer: 4 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?

      Your Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males

      Explanation:

      Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      24.6
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts

      Explanation:

      A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      15.6
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Correct

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      27.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: 5 weeks

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      At about 8-12 weeks gestation, normal physiological herniation of the fetal bowel occurs. The midgut protrudes into the base of the umbilicus, and undergoes a 90-degree anticlockwise rotation. When the abdominal cavity enlarges enough to fit the developing midgut, the intestines undergo another 180-degree rotation before returning to the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.8
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Usually have secondary amenorrhea

      Correct Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      30.9
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      44.7
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation?

      Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Correct Answer: Ladd's bands

      Explanation:

      Ladd’s bands are the most common form of peritoneal bands in malrotation of the intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      14.7
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Correct

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.9
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon?

      Your Answer: T10/11

      Correct Answer: T12/L1

      Explanation:

      Sigmoid colon is part of the hindgut and the hindgut is innervated by the T12-L1 segment of the spinal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.5
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal nerve has three divisions, the first is the ophthalmic division that does not originate from any of the pharyngeal arches, the second and third divisions, namely, the maxillary and the mandibular region develop from the first pharyngeal arch.
      Pharyngeal Arches:
      1st = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V)
      2nd = Facial (CN VII)
      3rd = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
      4th and 6th = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      GI Tract initially forms via gastrulation from the endoderm of the trilaminar embryo around week 3. It extends from the buccopharyngeal membrane to the cloacal membrane. Later in development there are contributions from all three germ cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      61.9
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Turner's syndrome is characterised by : ...

    Correct

    • Turner's syndrome is characterised by :

      Your Answer: Streak ovaries

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.2
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - The 7th cranial nerve develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Correct

    • The 7th cranial nerve develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      The 7th Cranial nerve is the facial nerve. The facial nerve develops from the second pharyngeal arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - When does Oocytogenesis complete? ...

    Correct

    • When does Oocytogenesis complete?

      Your Answer: Birth

      Explanation:

      During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.1
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - How many days after fertilisation does the morula form? ...

    Correct

    • How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      When there are about 12-32 blastomeres, the developing human is referred to as morula. It enters the uterine cavity around the 4th day after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.1
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Correct

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Commonest cause of precocious puberty is: ...

    Correct

    • Commonest cause of precocious puberty is:

      Your Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty can be defined as secondary sexual characteristics that occur before the age of 8 years in females and 9 years in males. In 80-90% of individuals it is idiopathic. Other causes include CNS anomalies and tumours, increased exposure to sex hormones/steroids, pituitary gonadotrophin secreting tumours and ovarian tumours etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.5
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo? ...

    Correct

    • Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      15.7
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?

      Your Answer: 14-16

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.9
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen replacement therapy is not indicated because they have enough oestrogens to produce breast development

      Correct Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      54
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 3rd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The maxillary arteries and the external carotid arteries develop from the first pharyngeal arch. The stapedial arteries arise from the second, the common carotid artery and the internal carotid arteries from the third and the arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery from the forth arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?

      Your Answer: Maximal growth velocity, thelarche, menarche

      Correct Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche

      Explanation:

      Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      17.8
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.2
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins

      Explanation:

      There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.4
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:

      Your Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby

      Explanation:

      Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.5
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: There is no direct mixing of fetal and maternal blood at the placenta

      Correct Answer: At term the placenta receives 70% of uterine blood flow

      Explanation:

      The placenta is important for regulating feto-maternal blood circulation, ensuring that the two circulatory systems do not come into direct contact. The placenta receives 70-80% of the uterine blood flow into the decidual spiral arteries where nutrient, waste and gaseous exchange with fetal blood takes place via the villous core fetal vessels. Deoxygenated blood arrives at the placenta via two uterine arteries while oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood is circulated back to the foetus via a single umbilical vein. The pressure in the umbilical vein is about 20 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      41.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (20/30) 67%
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