00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old female visits the Emergency Department complaining of an acute worsening of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old female visits the Emergency Department complaining of an acute worsening of her asthma symptoms. A detailed history reveals that she took one of her brother's heart pills without a prescription as she was experiencing palpitations and thought it would cure her. Her shortness of breath was suddenly exacerbated after ingesting this medicine.

      Which one of the following medications has this woman most likely consumed?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol, like other non-selective beta-blockers, is contraindicated in patients with asthma. These drugs can cause acute bronchospasm, therefore worsening symptoms, especially in high doses. However, there has been some recent evidence that long-term use of selective beta-blockers in mild or moderate asthma patients can be safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man develops hypothyroidism.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      244.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive...

    Correct

    • You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive resuscitated patient. They make the decision to start a dopamine infusion.

      Dopamine primarily has which of the following effects at high doses (>15 g/kg/min)?

      Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic stimulation

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Because clearance varies greatly in critically ill patients, plasma concentrations cannot be predicted reliably from infusion rates.
      Dopamine is given as an intravenous infusion, and because extravasation can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing, a central line is usually used (especially at higher doses >240 g/min). In an emergency, however, dopamine can be administered through a large vein (cephalic or basilic) while a central line is being prepared. Alkaline intravenous solutions inactivate it, so sodium bicarbonate should not be infused with it.

      The following are the most common dopamine side effects:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      505.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A CT head scan is performed, and the diagnosis of an ischaemic stroke is confirmed. Her blood pressure is currently very high, with the most recent measurement being 196/124 mmHg, according to the nurse in charge. While you wait for the stroke team to review her, she asks you to prescribe something to help lower the patient's blood pressure.

      Which of the following is the best drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the setting of a stroke syndrome (i.e., in the presence of focal neurological deficits), hypertensive emergencies usually necessitate a slower and more controlled blood pressure reduction than in other situations. Rapid reduction of MAP in the presence of an ischaemic stroke can compromise blood flow, leading to further ischaemia and worsening of the neurological deficit. In this situation, intravenous labetalol is the drug of choice for lowering blood pressure.

      Significantly elevated blood pressure (>185/110 mmHg) is a contraindication to thrombolysis, but there is some evidence for controlling blood pressure before thrombolysis in exceptional circumstances, when it is only slightly above this threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Long QT syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sinus node disease

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

      The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sensitivity to iodine
      Blockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)
      Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)
      Thyroid disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      379.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - After collapsing at home, a 62-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 62-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is rushed to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which reveals ventricular tachycardia. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of these statements about amiodarone is correct?

      Your Answer: It prolongs phase 1 of the cardiac action potential

      Correct Answer: It is expressed in breast milk

      Explanation:

      Antiarrhythmic drug amiodarone is used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III antiarrhythmic that works by prolonging the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, where potassium permeability is normally high and calcium permeability is low.

      Dronedarone is sometimes used instead of amiodarone in certain situations. Although amiodarone is more effective than dronedarone, dronedarone has fewer side effects.

      Grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of amiodarone.

      The plasma half-life of amiodarone is very long, ranging from 2 weeks to 5 months. The half-life is about 2 months on average.
      Because amiodarone is excreted in breast milk, it should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.

      Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction.

      Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.

      An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as...

    Incorrect

    • You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as part of his treatment protocol.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding mannitol is true?

      Your Answer: It crosses the blood-brain-barrier

      Correct Answer: It is irritant to veins and causes phlebitis

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound and is therefore freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. It, therefore, increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).
      Mannitol is primarily used to reduce the pressure and volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It decreases the volume of CSF by:
      Decreasing the rate of CSF formation,and;
      Withdrawing extracellular fluid from the brain across the BBB
      Other uses of mannitol include:
      Short-term management of glaucoma
      Treatment of rhabdomyolysis
      Preserve renal function in peri-operative jaundiced patients
      To initiate diuresis in transplanted kidneys
      Bowel preparation prior to colorectal procedures
      The recommended dose of mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema is 0.25-2g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.
      Circulatory overload and rebound increases in intracranial pressure may occur following the use of mannitol. It is irritant to tissues and veins and can cause inflammation and phlebitis.
      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:
      Anuria
      Intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      Severe cardiac failure
      Severe dehydration
      Severe pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      123.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is...

    Correct

    • Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is a 59-year-old man who was seen with epigastric pain that has since subsided, and he will be seen by his GP in the coming days. He's been hearing a lot about aspirin lately and wants to learn more about it.

      Which of the following statements about aspirin's mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase in an irreversible manner, resulting in a decrease in prostaglandin and thromboxane production. As a result, platelet activation and aggregation are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started since he started her on amiodarone for atrial arrhythmia. The cardiologist recognised that she is experiencing a side effect of amiodarone.

      Which one of the following conditions will this woman NOT have?

      Your Answer: Xanthopsia

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker used to treat multiple types of arrhythmias.

      Side effects include:
      1. pulmonary fibrosis
      2. blue discolouration of the skin
      3. phototoxicity
      4. corneal deposits
      5. hepatic necrosis
      6. thyroid dysfunction
      7. sleep disturbances
      8. peripheral neuropathy.

      Xanthopsia is a condition where the patient complains of seeing yellow lines and is seen in digoxin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      94.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.

      Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Nicardipine

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.

      Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.

      The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.
      An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American...

    Correct

    • Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American woman. In the emergency room, she is given intramuscular adrenaline, but her symptoms do not improve. Her GP recently started her on a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the most common cause of drug-induced angioedema in the United Kingdom and the United States, owing to their widespread use.

      Angioedema is caused by ACE inhibitors in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of patients, with data indicating a persistent and relatively constant risk year after year. People of African descent have a five-fold higher chance of contracting the disease.

      Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face is the most common symptom, but another symptom is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema. Itching and urticaria are noticeably absent.

      The mechanism appears to be activated complement or other pro-inflammatory cytokines like prostaglandins and histamine, which cause rapid vasodilation and oedema.

      Other medications that are less frequently linked to angioedema include:
      Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs)
      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Bupropion (e.g. Zyban and Wellbutrin)
      Beta-lactam antibiotics
      Statins
      Proton pump inhibitors

      The majority of these reactions are minor and can be treated by stopping the drug and prescribing antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent palpitations for the past two days. She...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent palpitations for the past two days. She has a good haemodynamic balance. An ECG is performed, which reveals that she has atrial flutter. The patient is examined by a cardiology registrar, who recommends using a 'rate control' strategy while she waits for cardioversion.

      Which of the drugs listed below is the best fit for this strategy?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      In atrial flutter, ventricular rate control is usually used as a stopgap measure until sinus rhythm can be restored. A beta-blocker (such as bisoprolol), diltiazem, or verapamil can be used to lower the heart rate.

      Electrical cardioversion, pharmacological cardioversion, or catheter ablation can all be used to restore sinus rhythm. Cardioversion should not be attempted until the patient has been fully anticoagulated for at least three weeks if the duration of atrial flutter is unknown or has lasted for more than 48 hours. Emergency electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice when there is an acute presentation with haemodynamic compromise. For the treatment of recurrent atrial flutter, catheter ablation is preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic...

    Correct

    • Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels. The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker is, for example, which of the following?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blockers, also known as calcium antagonists, stop calcium from entering cells through the L-type calcium channel. This causes vascular smooth muscle in vessel walls to relax, resulting in a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.
      They can be used for a variety of things, including:
      Hypertension
      Angina
      Atrial fibrillation
      Migraine

      Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels.

      Dihydropyridines have a high vascular selectivity and lower systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. As a result, they’re frequently used to treat hypertension. Modified release formulations are also used to treat angina, but their powerful systemic vasodilator and pressure-lowering effects can cause reflex cardiac stimulation, resulting in increased inotropy and tachycardia, which can counteract the beneficial effects of reduced afterload on myocardial oxygen demand.

      The suffix -dpine distinguishes dihydropyridines from other pyridines. Examples of dihydropyridines that are commonly prescribed include:
      Amlodipine
      Felodipine
      Nifedipine
      Nimodipine

      The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      Phenylalkylamines are less effective as systemic vasodilators because they are relatively selective for the myocardium. This group of drugs lowers myocardial oxygen demand and reverses coronary vasospasm, making them useful in the treatment of angina. They are also occasionally used to treat arrhythmias. A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker like verapamil is an example.

      In terms of selectivity for vascular calcium channels, benzothiazepines fall somewhere between dihydropyridines and phenylalkylamines. They can lower arterial pressure without producing the same level of reflex cardiac stimulation as dihydropyridines because they have both cardiac depressant and vasodilator effects. Diltiazem is the only benzothiazepine currently in clinical use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      161.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Opens K + channels in the heart

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      104.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The...

    Correct

    • You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The rhythm strip is shown in the diagram below. Defibrillation has already been attempted three times on the patient. You intended to administer amiodarone, but your department has informed you that it is not available. In these circumstances, if amiodarone is not available, which of the following drugs is recommended by the ALS guidelines? Ventricular fibrillation

      Your Answer: Lidocaine

      Explanation:

      If amiodarone is unavailable in VF/pVT arrests, lidocaine at a dose of 1 mg/kg can be used instead, according to the latest ALS guidelines. If amiodarone has already been given, no lidocaine should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide...

    Correct

    • You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide to contact the intensive care outreach team because she appears to be in septic shock. They decide to start a dobutamine infusion as soon as they arrive.

      Which of the following statements about dobutamine is correct?

      Your Answer: It may be infused via a peripheral line

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      It is infused intravenously after being diluted to a volume of at least 50 ml in a suitable crystalloid solution. The dose is titrated to response and ranges from 0.5 to 40 g/kg/min. Extravasation-induced skin necrosis is uncommon, and dobutamine can be administered through a peripheral line.

      At doses below 10 g/kg/min, side effects are rare, but at higher doses, they can include:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - As a result of a cardiovascular drug she was prescribed, a 67-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a result of a cardiovascular drug she was prescribed, a 67-year-old woman develops corneal microdeposits.

      Which of the following drugs is the MOST LIKELY cause?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are almost universally present (over 90%) in people who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, especially at doses above 400 mg/day. Although these deposits usually cause no symptoms, about 10% of patients report seeing a ‘bluish halo.’ This goes away once the treatment is stopped, and it rarely causes vision problems.

      Other effects of amiodarone on the eye are much rarer, occurring in only 1-2 percent of patients:
      Optic neuropathy is a condition that affects the eyes.
      Non-arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy (N-AION)
      Swelling of the optic disc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic...

    Correct

    • You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. Bumetanide was recently prescribed for him.

      Which of the following statements about bumetanide is correct?

      Your Answer: It has better intestinal absorption than furosemide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium, chloride, and potassium reabsorption by acting on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporter in the ascending loop of Henlé. This reduces the osmotic gradient that forces water out of the collecting duct system and prevents the formation of a hypertonic renal medulla. This has a strong diuretic effect on the body.

      It’s primarily used in patients with heart failure who aren’t responding to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency.

      In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. Bumetanide is 40 times more potent than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide.

      Bumetanide also lowers the concentration of neuronal chloride, making GABA’s action more depolarizing. In the neonatal period, it is being studied as an antiepileptic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 85-year-old woman is brought in from her nursing home. She arrives in...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman is brought in from her nursing home. She arrives in the Emergency Department and appears confused. The staff member from the nursing home accompanying her informs you that she takes a water tablet.

      From her past medical history and records, you deduce that the water tablet is a loop diuretic.

      Which of the following parts of a nephron does a loop diuretic act on?

      Your Answer: Ascending loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:
      Furosemide
      Bumetanide
      Torsemide
      Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics act on the apical membrane of the thick ascending loop of Henle and inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter. This blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and results in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      Other diuretics act on the following part of the nephron:
      1. Thiazide diuretics – Na/Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule
      2. Osmotic diuretics – PCT and the loop of Henle
      3. Aldosterone antagonists – distal convoluted tubule
      4. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors – inhibit the carbonic anhydrase and act on proximal tubular cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      132
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the department with severe diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and takes an ACE inhibitor to treat it.

      Which of the following statements about angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is correct?

      Your Answer: They commonly cause hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: They have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors prevent angiotensin I from being converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II has a variety of effects:
      Sympathetic activity has increased.
      Vasoconstriction in the arteries
      Secretion of Vasopressin
      Secretion of aldosterone

      The increase in systemic blood pressure is caused by arteriolar vasoconstriction. Vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys as well as the thirst sensation. In the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium and water from the urine in exchange for potassium secretion. As a result, ACE inhibitors lower systemic blood pressure while also causing hyperkalaemia.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used in a variety of clinical settings, including heart failure. According to a meta-analysis, ACE inhibitors reduce death, MI, and overall admission in patients with heart failure by 28%.
      ACE inhibitors are also used in the following clinical settings:
      Hypertension
      Chronic kidney disease
      Diabetic nephropathy 
      Following a myocardial infarction

      In the presence of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they can cause or exacerbate renal failure.
      The most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough caused by increased bradykinin production. There is, however, no known link to fibrosis of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian...

    Incorrect

    • The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian man is 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      The first-line drug treatment for this patient would be which of the following? Please only choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 59-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In a VF arrest, a 6-year-old child is brought to your Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • In a VF arrest, a 6-year-old child is brought to your Emergency Department resuscitation area. He weighs 16 kilogrammes. He's had three DC shocks, but he's still in VF and doesn't have an output.

      What amiodarone dose should he get now, according to the most recent APLS guidelines?

      Your Answer: 32 mg

      Correct Answer: 80 mg

      Explanation:

      In a shockable (Vf/pVT) paediatric cardiac arrest, amiodarone should be administered after the third and fifth shocks. The dose is 5 mg/kg (maximum 300 mg) and should be administered over a three-minute period. If at all possible, administration via a central line is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This has been happening since she began taking a new antihypertensive medication a few weeks ago.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to be the cause of this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker that is frequently used to treat hypertension. Ankle swelling is a very common side effect of calcium-channel blockers, and it occurs quite frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III.

      Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      108.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in...

    Correct

    • You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in the past. Her most recent blood tests show that she has severe renal impairment.

      Which medication adjustments should you make in this patient's case?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated digoxin levels and toxicity.
      The patient’s digoxin dose should be reduced in this case, and their digoxin level and electrolytes should be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP...

    Incorrect

    • On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP reading of 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      Which of the following would be the patient's first-line drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Afro-Caribbean man.

      An ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, or a low-cost angiotensin-II receptor blocker (ARB), such as losartan, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate...

    Incorrect

    • You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate an elderly gentleman who had collapsed at home. The team leader requests that you administer an adrenaline shot.

      Which of the following statements about adrenaline is FALSE?

      Your Answer: It is a directly acting sympathomimetic amine

      Correct Answer: The IM dose in anaphylaxis is 1 ml of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic amine that binds to alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors and acts as an agonist. It is active at both alpha and beta receptors in roughly equal amounts.

      When taken orally, it becomes inactive. Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intramuscular absorption. In cardiac arrest, it is well absorbed from the tracheal mucosa and can be given through an endotracheal tube.

      At the adrenergic synapse, catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) metabolise it primarily. The inactive products are then passed through the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

      In adult cardiac arrest, the IV dose is 1 mg, which is equal to 10 ml of 1:10000 or 1 ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, the IM dose is 0.5 ml of 1:1000. (500 mcg).

      In open-angle glaucoma, adrenaline causes mydriasis and lowers pressure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the treatment of severe croup, and the emergency management of acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions (as a nebuliser solution).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      85.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is...

    Correct

    • During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is given a drug to treat a medical condition. The foetus has developed hypoperfusion and the oligohydramnios sequence as a result of this.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence are all linked to ACE inhibitor use in the second and third trimesters.

      The oligohydramnios sequence refers to a foetus’ or neonate’s atypical physical appearance as a result of oligohydramnios in the uterus. It’s also linked to aortic arch obstructive malformations and patent ductus arteriosus.

      The inhibitory effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system appear to be the cause of these defects. To avoid these risks, ACE inhibitors should be stopped before the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (19/29) 66%
Pharmacology (19/29) 66%
Passmed