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  • Question 1 - Which of the following associations is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following associations is false?

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerve – foramen lacerum

      Explanation:

      – The olfactory nerves pass through the cribriform plate- The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen rotundum- The facial nerve passes through the stylomastoid foramen- The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass through the foramen ovale- The glossopharyngeal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Axon

      Correct Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Viridans Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, that are present in the mouth are the most frequently isolated microorganisms when the infection is acquired in a community setting. In contrast, Staphylococcus blood stream infections are frequently acquired in a health care setting where they can enter the blood stream through procedures that cause break in the integrity of skin like surgery, catheterisation or during access of long term indwelling catheters or secondary to intravenous injection of recreational drugs.Prosthetic valve endocarditis is commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis as it is capable of growing as a biofilm on plastic surfaces

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia are the smallest of the neuroglial cells in the nervous system. They are scattered throughout the central nervous system and have phagocytic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      28.9
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Resisted thumb flexion

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Medullary chemoreceptors ...

    Incorrect

    • Medullary chemoreceptors

      Your Answer: Are located in the nucleus of tractus solitaries

      Correct Answer: Monitor H+ concentration of the CSF

      Explanation:

      Central chemoreceptors of the central nervous system, located on the ventrolateral medullary surface in the vicinity of the exit of the 9th and 10th cranial nerves, are sensitive to the pH of their environment. These act to detect the changes in pH of nearby cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that are indicative of altered oxygen or carbon dioxide concentrations available to brain tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      5.7
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Basolateral surface of proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Medulla

      Correct Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - The cerebellum consist of which three lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consist of which three lobes?

      Your Answer: Anterior, posterior and superior

      Correct Answer: Anterior, posterior and flocculonodular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum consists of 3 lobes; Anterior, Posterior and Flocculonodular lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      40.8
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Raised hyaluronic acid levels

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it? ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it?

      Your Answer: Can be heard in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle by atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Incorrect

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer: CN Vll

      Correct Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.2
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Growth hormone deficiency causes? ...

    Correct

    • Growth hormone deficiency causes?

      Your Answer: Decreased epiphyseal growth

      Explanation:

      Growth hormone deficiency is caused by conditions affecting the pituitary gland, such as tumours. Its effects depend on the age of the patient: in infancy and childhood, growth failure is most likely to occur. The epiphyseal plate is the area in long bones where growth occurs, and it is the area affected by growth hormone deficiency. Poor growth/shortness is the main symptom of GH deficiency in children, usually resulting in growth at about half the usual rate for age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:

      Your Answer: May be complicated by erythema nodosum.

      Correct Answer: More than half of the population is infected.

      Explanation:

      HSV-1 is often acquired orally during childhood. It may also be sexually transmitted, including contact with saliva, such as kissing and mouth-to-genital contact (oral sex). HSV-2 is primarily a sexually transmitted infection, but rates of HSV-1 genital infections are increasing. HSVs may persist in a quiescent but persistent form known as latent infection, notably in neural ganglia. HSV-1 tends to reside in the trigeminal ganglia, while HSV-2 tends to reside in the sacral ganglia, but these are tendencies only, not fixed behaviour. The virus can be reactivated by illnesses such as colds and influenza, eczema, emotional and physical stress, gastric upset, fatigue or injury, by menstruation and possibly exposure to bright sunlight. Genital Herpes may be reactivated by friction. Shingles is due to a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged...

    Incorrect

    • The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged as follows:

      Your Answer: External granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, molecular, multiform

      Correct Answer: Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform

      Explanation:

      The layers of neocortex from outermost to innermost include: the molecular, external granular layer, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal and multiform layer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.9
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Accentuated lumbar lordosis

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease. The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following is correctly paired? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correctly paired?

      Your Answer: D cells : insulin

      Correct Answer: F cells : pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic polypeptide is secreted by F-cells, which represent the smallest proportion of islet cells in the pancreas. These cells establish the embryological origin of the pancreas. Pancreatic polypeptide regulates endocrine and exocrine activities by the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomere transcriptase

      Correct Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is the enzyme responsible for maintenance of the length of telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive sequences. Telomerase activity is exhibited in gametes and stem and tumor cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the: ...

    Correct

    • The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the:

      Your Answer: Edinger-Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The consensual light reflex occurs when an individual’s right eye is shielded and light shines into the left eye, constriction of the right pupil will occur, as well as the left. This is because the afferent signal sent through one optic nerve connects to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, whose axons run to both the right and the left oculomotor nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.7
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: Positive HLA–B8

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - In which cell would you find a Nissl body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which cell would you find a Nissl body?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Correct Answer: Bipolar neuron

      Explanation:

      Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?

      Your Answer: Positive ANCA

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatinine

      Explanation:

      People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Correct Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      41.2
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal end of the left 3rd costal cartilage to the sternal end of the right 6th costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary trunk

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular (coronary) groove

      Explanation:

      The AV groove corresponds to the right border of the heart. The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: Normal in children

      Correct Answer: Coincide with atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      A third heart sound also called a ventricular gallop occurs at the beginning of diastole after S2 and is lower in pitch than S1 or S2 as it is not of valvular origin. The third heart sound is benign in youth, some trained athletes, and sometimes in pregnancy but if it re-emerges later in life it may signal cardiac problems, such as a failing left ventricle as in dilated congestive heart failure (CHF). S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. It may also be a result of tensing of the chordae tendineae during rapid filling and expansion of the ventricle. In other words, an S3 heart sound indicates increased volume of blood within the ventricle. An S3 heart sound is best heard with the bell-side of the stethoscope (used for lower frequency sounds). A left-sided S3 is best heard in the left lateral decubitus position and at the apex of the heart, which is normally located in the 5th left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. A right-sided S3 is best heard at the lower-left sternal border. The way to distinguish between a left and right-sided S3 is to observe whether it increases in intensity with inhalation or exhalation. A right-sided S3 will increase on inhalation, while a left-sided S3 will increase on exhalation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Carbohydrates digestion starts in the ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbohydrates digestion starts in the

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Correct Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Digestion begins in the mouth with the secretion of saliva and its digestive enzymes. Food is formed into a bolus by the mechanical mastication and swallowed into the oesophagus from where it enters the stomach through the action of peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - How does the proximal convoluted tubule excrete H+? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does the proximal convoluted tubule excrete H+?

      Your Answer: Facilitated by a Na/K+ ATPase.

      Correct Answer: Via Na+/H+ antiporter.

      Explanation:

      H+ secretion from cells across the luminal membrane is mostly in exchange for Na+ ions, and to a small extent, through a proton ATPase. Secreted H+ react with filtered HC03- to form H2CO3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      25.3
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which of the following constituents?

      Your Answer: Circular muscle, mesothelium, submucosa

      Correct Answer: Circular muscle, myenteric plexus, longitudinal muscle

      Explanation:

      The muscularis mucosa/propria consists of the inner circular muscles and the outer longitudinal muscles. Between these muscles is the myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as...

    Incorrect

    • The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as

      Your Answer: Intestinal pits

      Correct Answer: Crypts of Lieberkühn

      Explanation:

      An intestinal gland (also crypt of Lieberkühn and intestinal crypt) is a gland found in the intestinal epithelium lining of the small intestine and large intestine (colon) between the villi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (2/2) 100%
Medicine (17/29) 59%
Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
Neurology (3/6) 50%
Connective Tissue (2/5) 40%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
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