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  • Question 1 - A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia presents with fever and worsening of recurrent back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats.

      The investigations done on her arrival show:
      Hb: 7.8 g/dL
      WCC: 10.1 x10^9/L
      Plts: 475 x10^9/L
      Reticulocytes: 12%
      Serum total bilirubin: 88 μmol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic crisis

      Correct Answer: Vaso-occlusive event

      Explanation:

      This patient is having vaso-occlusive event/crisis (thrombotic crisis) which is a type of sickle cell crisis. It may be associated with ostealgia.

      There is no evidence of an aplastic crisis in this case as the haemoglobin level is reasonable with a good reticulocyte count. Conversely, the haemoglobin is not low enough and reticulocyte count and bilirubin are not high enough for a haemolytic crisis.

      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. The four main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, aplastic crisis, and haemolytic crisis.

      Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). Aplastic crisis is characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis. It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection. In haemolytic crisis, a fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive

      Explanation:

      Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.

      ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.

      Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.

      Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
      1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
      2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
      3. Age <2 years or >10 years
      4. Male sex
      5. CNS involvement
      6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
      7. non-Caucasian

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager has the following blood result: Hgb=19. What hormone should you check?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      An increase in the patient’s haemoglobin tells us that the patient might be having an increased number of red blood cells. Smoking causes raised carboxyhaemoglobin levels and thus hypoxemia. Hypoxemia will increase the erythropoietin levels in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia trait from iron deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin A2 levels

      Explanation:

      Elevated haemoglobin A2 level is seen in beta thalassaemia trait, whereas, it is typically low in iron deficiency anaemia unless the patient has received a recent blood transfusion.

      Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and reduced haematocrit (Ht) are encountered in both conditions. Peripheral blood smear is grossly abnormal in both beta thalassaemia and severe iron deficiency anaemia, showing bizarre morphology, target cells, and a small number of nucleated red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.

      Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now stopped. According to her boyfriend, she has a recent history of mucosal bleeding and has at times been very disorientated. On examination, she has a low-grade fever and appears confused and jaundiced. There is bruising over her legs and arms. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You receive the following blood results from the laboratory:

      Hb: 8.5 g/dL
      Plts: 8 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 4.5 x 10^9/L
      MCV: 92 fL
      Na+: 138 mmol/L
      K+: 4.9 mmol/L
      Urea: 10.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 182 mmol/L
      Her coagulation profile is normal.

      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma exchange

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis for the aforementioned case is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is classically characterised as a pentad of thrombocytopaenia, microvascular haemolysis, fluctuating neurological signs, renal impairment, and fever.

      The differential diagnosis for severe thrombocytopaenia is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). ITP is more common than TTP. However, a patient of ITP would not present with the range of symptoms seen in this scenario.

      In TTP, there is deficiency of a protease which breaks down large multimers of von Willebrand factor. This leads to abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand factor which cause platelets to clump within the vessels.

      Untreated TTP has a mortality rate of up to 90%. Therefore, rapid plasma exchange (PEX) may be a life-saving intervention. Platelet transfusion in TTP is only indicated if there is an ongoing life-threatening bleed. Intravenous methylprednisolone is indicated after treatment with PEX has been completed. There is no current role of intravenous immunoglobulin in the routine management of TTP. However, there have been reports of its successful use in PEX- and steroid-refractory cases. Intravenous argatroban is indicated in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT), but there is no history of recent heparin administration or hospitalisation in this patient nor are the clinical signs consistent with HIT.

      Management options for TTP include PEX as the treatment of choice. Steroids and immunosuppressants are also given. Antibiotics are not recommended as they may worsen the outcome of the disease. For cases resistant to PEX and pharmacologic therapy, vincristine is given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Incorrect

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 8 - Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised ESR

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.

      PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:

      Hb: 11.8 g/dl
      Platelets: 423 x 109/l
      WBC: 11.2 x 109/l
      Na+: 143 mmol/l
      K+: 3.9 mmol/l
      Urea: 6.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 78 μmol/l
      Uric acid: 0.45 mmol/l

      Ciprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up to the umbilicus. Blood tests revealed the following results: Hb=8.7g/dl, Platelets=72 and WBC=100. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) can initially be asymptomatic but as the disease progresses, they appear to have elevated WBCs with anaemia and a lower than normal platelet count. The blood test results in addition to the profound splenomegaly, which is the most common finding in patients with CML, make CML the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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