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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman with a history of multiple joint pain and red painful...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with a history of multiple joint pain and red painful skin lesions complained of a chronic non-productive cough. CXR shows symmetric hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any organ but mainly affects the lungs and lymph nodes. Cough can be due to any of the given conditions. Polyarthritis, erythema nodosum (erythematous painful subcutaneous nodules) and symmetric hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy are classical signs of sarcoidosis. This triad is known as Lofgren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the sign of life threatening asthma? ...

    Correct

    • What is the sign of life threatening asthma?

      Your Answer: Deteriorating level of consciousness

      Explanation:

      A drop in level of consciousness is an indicator of high levels of PCO2 and cerebral cortex depression. It is a life threatening condition that requires intervention which may include mechanical ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 74-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of hoarseness of voice...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of hoarseness of voice and cough for the past 3 weeks. The patient has been a smoker and quit 3 years ago. Radiological examination reveals a mass in the mediastinum. Which investigation should be employed to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: LN biopsy

      Explanation:

      Masses in the middle mediastinum most commonly represent lymph nodes that are enlarged by a malignant, infectious, or inflammatory process. Masses in the posterior mediastinum are usually benign tumours or cysts originating from either the nerves that are present in this area (neurogenic tumours) or from the oesophagus (foregut duplication cysts). Lymph node biopsy would be the ideal choice of investigation in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
      Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung function abnormality is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Increased residual volume

      Explanation:

      Asthma is a condition characterized by airway hyperresponsiveness, which results in reversible increases in bronchial smooth muscle tone, and variable amounts of inflammation of the bronchial mucosa.
      During an acute asthma attack, the already inflamed airways narrow further due to bronchospasm, which leads to increased airway resistance. Because of the increased smooth muscle tone during an asthma attack, the airways also tend to close at abnormally high lung volumes, trapping air behind occluded or narrowed small airways. Thus the acute asthmatic will breathe at high lung volumes, his functional residual capacity will be elevated, and he will inspire close to total lung capacity. The accessory muscles of respiration are often used to maintain the lungs in a hyperinflated state.

      During episodes of acute asthma, pulmonary function tests reveal an obstructive pattern. This includes a decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory air flow (a decrease in FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio) due to the increased resistance, and a reduction in forced vital capacity (FVC) correlating with the level of hyperinflation of the lungs. Because these patients breathe at such high lung volumes (near the top of the pressure-volume curve, where lung compliance greatly decreases), they must exert significant effort to create an extremely negative pleural pressure, and consequently fatigue easily. Overinflation also reduces the curvature of the diaphragm, making it less efficient in generating further negative pleural pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital...

    Correct

    • An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis.
       
      She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa.
       
      On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal.
       
      Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours)
      A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation.
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%-20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.

      Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor ? (TNF-?). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      51.3
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?

      Your Answer: HIV test

      Correct Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.5
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  • Question 8 - A 60 old patient with a history of chronic cough was found to...

    Correct

    • A 60 old patient with a history of chronic cough was found to have partial ptosis, constricted pupil and loss of hemifacial sweating. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner syndrome (oculosympathetic paresis) results from an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by the classic triad of miosis (i.e., constricted pupil), partial ptosis, and loss of hemifacial sweating (i.e., anhidrosis). As this patient presented with chronic cough most probably he has Pancoast tumour (tumour in the apex of the lung, most commonly squamous cell carcinoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrin and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates.
      Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and begin oral corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      49.7
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  • Question 10 - A 66-year-old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks.

      On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences.
      Investigations:
      BP is 141/72 mmHg
      Pulse 82 bpm and regular
      Sp(O2) 92% on room air
      RR 19 breaths/min
      Temperature 37.1°C.
      Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%.
       
      Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax

      Explanation:

      High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).

      HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      49.9
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a height of 5010 metres. Despite having the headache and feeling nauseous, she continues to hike but becomes progressively worse. She is seen staggering, complains of feeling dizzy and has an ataxic gait.

      Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Descent

      Correct Answer: Descent + dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      High Altitude Cerebral Oedema (HACE) is a severe and potentially fatal manifestation of high altitude illness and is often characterized by ataxia, fatigue, and altered mental status. HACE is often thought of as an extreme form/end-stage of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). Although HACE represents the least common form of altitude illness, it may progress rapidly to coma and death as a result of brain herniation within 24 hours, if not promptly diagnosed and treated.

      HACE generally occurs after 2 days above 4000m but can occur at lower elevations (2500m) and with faster onset. Some, but not all, individuals will suffer from symptoms of AMS such as headache, insomnia, anorexia, nausea prior to transitioning to HACE. Some may also have concomitant High Altitude Pulmonary Oedema (HAPE). HACE in isolation is rare, but the absence of concomitant HAPE or symptoms of AMS prior to deterioration does not rule-out the presence of HACE.

      Most cases develop as a progression of AMS and will include a history of recent ascent to altitude and prior complaints/findings of AMS including a headache, fatigue, nausea, insomnia, and/or light-headedness. Some may also have signs/symptoms of HAPE. Transition to HACE is heralded by signs of encephalopathy including ataxia (usually the earliest clinical finding) and altered mentation which may range from mild to severe. Other symptoms may include a more severe headache, difficulty speaking, lassitude, a decline in the level of consciousness, and/or focal neurological deficits or seizures.

      The mainstay of treatment is the immediate descent of at least 1000m or until symptoms improve. If descent is not an option, one may use a portable hyperbaric chamber and/or supplemental oxygen to temporize illness, but this should never replace or delay evaluation/descent when possible. If available, dexamethasone 8mg for one dose, followed by 4mg every 6 hours should be given to adults via PO, IM, or IV routes.
      Acetazolamide has proven to be beneficial in only a single clinical study. The suggested dosing regimen for Acetazolamide is 250 mg PO, given twice daily. Though effective in alleviating or temporizing symptoms, none of the adjunct treatment modalities are definitive or a replacement for an immediate descent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.7
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  • Question 12 - A young man is reviewed for difficulty breathing. Lung function tests showed that...

    Correct

    • A young man is reviewed for difficulty breathing. Lung function tests showed that his peak expiratory flow rate is 54% below the normal range for his age and height. What is a possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF), also called Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) is a person’s maximum speed of expiration, as measured with a peak flow meter. Measurement of PEFR requires some practise to correctly use a meter and the normal expected value depends on a patient’s gender, age and height.
      It is classically reduced in obstructive lung disorders, such as Asthma, COPD or Cystic Fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.8
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old doctor developed a fever of 40.2 °C which lasted for two...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old doctor developed a fever of 40.2 °C which lasted for two days. He has had diarrhoea for a day, shortness of breath and dry cough.
      His blood results reveal a hyponatraemia and deranged LFTs. His WBC count is 10.4 × 109/L and CX-ray shows bibasal consolidation.
       
      Which treatment would be the most effective for his condition?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is the predominant clinical manifestation of Legionnaires disease (LD). After an incubation period of 2-10 days, patients typically develop the following nonspecific symptoms:
      Fever
      Weakness
      Fatigue
      Malaise
      Myalgia
      Chills

      Respiratory symptoms may not be present initially but develop as the disease progresses. Almost all patients develop a cough, which is initially dry and non-productive, but may become productive, with purulent sputum and, (in rare cases) haemoptysis. Patients may experience chest pain.
      Common GI symptoms include diarrhoea (watery and non bloody), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      Fever is typically present (98%). Temperatures exceeding 40°C occur in 20-60% of patients. Lung examination reveals rales and signs of consolidation late in the disease course.

      Males are more than twice as likely as females to develop Legionnaires disease.

      Age
      Middle-aged and older adults have a high risk of developing Legionnaires disease while it is rare in young adults and children. Among children, more than one third of reported cases have occurred in infants younger than 1 year.

      Situations suggesting Legionella disease:
      -Gram stains of respiratory samples revealing many polymorphonuclear leukocytes with few or no organisms

      -Hyponatremia

      -Pneumonia with prominent extrapulmonary manifestations (e.g., diarrhoea, confusion, other neurologic symptoms)

      Specific therapy includes antibiotics capable of achieving high intracellular concentrations (e.g., macrolides, quinolones, ketolides, tetracyclines, rifampicin).
      Clarithromycin, a new macrolide antibiotic, is at least four times more active in vitro than erythromycin against Legionella pneumophila. In this study the safety and efficacy of orally administered clarithromycin (500 to 1,000 mg bid) in the treatment of Legionella pneumonia were evaluated.
      Clarithromycin is a safe effective treatment for patients with severe chest infections due to Legionella pneumophila.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      30.2
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  • Question 14 - A 63-year-old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Oral glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
      of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

      The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22.7
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  • Question 15 - A 66-year-old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness for the past five months while doing daily tasks. His exercise tolerance is now limited to 75 metres while on a flat surface and walking up the stairs makes him breathless. He sleeps on four pillows and has swollen ankles in the morning. He occasionally coughs up phlegm.

      Past Medical history of importance:
      36 pack year smoking history
      Hypertension
      Ischaemic heart disease
      Coronary artery stenting done 10 months ago

      Pulmonary function testing revealed:
      FEV1 0.90 L (1.80 - 3.02 predicted)
      FVC 1.87 L (2.16 - 3.58 predicted)
      Diffusion capacity 3.0 mmol/min/kPa (5.91 - 9.65 predicted)
      Total lung capacity 4.50 L (4.25 - 6.22 predicted)
      Residual volume 2.70 L (1.46 - 2.48 predicted)
       
      Which condition does he have?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Whilst asthma and COPD are different diseases they cause similar symptoms, which can present a challenge in identifying which of the two diseases a patient is suffering from. COPD causes chronic symptoms and narrowed airways which do not respond to treatment to open them up. In the case of asthma the constriction of the airways through inflammation tends to come and go and treatment to reduce inflammation and to open up the airways usually works well.

      COPD is more likely than asthma to cause a chronic cough with phlegm and is rare before the age of 35 whilst asthma is common in under-35s. Disturbed sleep caused by breathlessness and wheeze is more likely in cases of asthma, as is a history of allergies, eczema and hay fever. Differentiating between COPD and asthma requires a history of both symptoms and spirometry. The spirometry history should include post bronchodilator measurements, the degree of reversibility and, ideally, home monitoring which gives a history of diurnal variation.

      Airflow Obstruction: Both asthma and COPD are characterised by airflow obstruction. Airflow obstruction is defined as a reduced FEV1 and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, such that FEV1 is less than 80% of that predicted, and FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7.

      These episodes are usually associated with widespread, but variable, airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.

      COPD: COPD is a chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction (reduced FEV1 and FEV1/VC ratio) that does not change markedly over several months. The airflow obstruction is not fully reversible.

      Spirometry COPD Asthma
      VC Reduced Nearly normal
      FEV1 Reduced Reduced in attack
      FVC (or FEV6) Reduced Nearly normal
      FEV1 Ratio
      (of VC/FVC/FEV6) Reduced in attack

      This man has a low FEV1 and FVC. His diffusions capacity is also low despite having a normal total lung capacity. These values confirm a diagnosis of COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      48.8
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old male smoker presented in the emergency room with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male smoker presented in the emergency room with a history of chest pain and a cough for the last few days. He is now complaining of increasing dyspnoea and sharp pains around the 4th and 5th ribs. On CXR, there is right sided hilar enlargement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The history of smoking with a cough and bone pain is suggestive of bronchogenic carcinoma. CXR findings are also supportive of this diagnosis. In COPD, a cough with dyspnoea and wheezing is prominent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      37.3
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  • Question 17 - A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has...

    Incorrect

    • A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.

      DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
      Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      21
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  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old male presents with severe right-sided chest pain. On examination, percussion was...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male presents with severe right-sided chest pain. On examination, percussion was hyper-resonant and breath sounds were reduced on the right side. He has no history of any respiratory illness or trauma. What condition is this patient suffering from?

      Your Answer: Simple Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax refers to a condition in which air or gases accumulate inside the pleural space causing the lungs to collapse. Because the patient did not have a history of any previous pulmonary disease or trauma, this is a case of simple pneumothorax.

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      • Respiratory System
      128.3
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  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of fever, cough...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of fever, cough and chest pain for 3 days. The right lung base was dull on percussion and the breath sounds were reduced in intensity. Which of the following investigations is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s acute presentation of symptoms accompanied by lung abnormalities observed on physical examination, the next step is to visualize the suspected acute inflammatory process by ordering a CXR. Bronchoscopy, CT and MRI are done in cases in which there is suspicion of any tumour formation. V/Q scan is done in cases where pulmonary embolism is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      42.5
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  • Question 20 - A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including high dose Seretide and tiotropium. She tells you that she is so unwell that she can barely manage the walk the 160 metres to the bus stop.
       
      On examination she looks short of breath at rest. Her BP is 158/74 mmHg, pulse is 76 and regular. There are quiet breath sounds, occasional coarse crackles and wheeze on auscultation of the chest.
       
      Investigations show:
       
      Haemoglobin 14.2 g/dl (13.5-17.7)
      White cell count 8.4 x 109/l (4-11)
      Platelets 300 x 109/l (150-400)
      Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 127 micromol/l (79-118)
      pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 7.5 kPa (4.8-6.1)
      pO2 9.7 kPa (10-13.3)
      Chest x-ray - Prominent upper lobe emphysema.
      FEV1 - 30% of predicted.
       
      Which of the features of her history, examination or investigations would preclude referral for lung reduction surgery?

      Your Answer: Predominant upper lobe emphysema

      Correct Answer: pCO2 7.4

      Explanation:

      Nice guidelines for lung reduction surgery:

      FEV1 > 20% predicted
      PaCO2 < 7.3 kPa
      TLco > 20% predicted
      Upper lobe predominant emphysema

      This patient has pCO2 of 7.4 so she is unsuitable for referral for lung reduction surgery.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa

      Explanation:

      In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.

      The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).

      Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing difficulties for...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing difficulties for the past 3 months. A chest x-ray, showed a unilateral opacity in hilum. He has no history of smoking. Choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of bronchial carcinoma.

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      • Respiratory System
      10.6
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of breathlessness and pyrexia. She's been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of breathlessness and pyrexia. She's been diagnosed with eczema and tuberculosis (TB). The following findings were established: pre-bronchodilator test=2/3.5, post-bronchodilator=3/3.7. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture of the patient together with paraclinical investigations (spirometry) suggest COPD.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 24 - A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

      Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
      Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
      Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 18-year-old male smoker presents with extreme rubor of the feet and missing...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male smoker presents with extreme rubor of the feet and missing foot pulses following an amputation of his right 2nd toe. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Clinical criteria for the diagnosis of Buerger’s disease are:
      1 – smoking history
      2 – onset before the age of 50 years
      3 – infrapopliteal arterial occlusions
      4 – either upper limb involvement or phlebitis migrans
      5 – absence of atherosclerotic risk factors other than smoking Confident clinical diagnosis of Buerger’s disease may be made only when all five requirements have been fulfilled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Reduced sympathetic outflow

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old man is referred to the pneumologist with a suspicion of bronchiectasis....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is referred to the pneumologist with a suspicion of bronchiectasis. History reveals he's been having recurrent pulmonary infections his whole life together with difficulties gaining weight. He's a non-smoker with a clear family history and he admits inhalers haven't helped him in the past. He is finally suspected of having cystic fibrosis. What is the normal function of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator?

      Your Answer: Chloride channel

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1 and FVC measurements

      Correct Answer: ANCA

      Explanation:

      Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
      The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
      It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
      The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
      Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
      Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with a fever and cough. Past medical history states that he has a long history of smoking and is found to have a cavitating lesion on his chest x-ray.
       
      Which organism is least likely to be the cause of his pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Enterococcus faecalis

      Explanation:

      Cavitating pneumonia is a complication that can occur with a severe necrotizing pneumonia and in some publications it is used synonymously with the latter term. It is a rare complication in both children and adults. Albeit rare, cavitation is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, and less frequently Aspergillus spp., Legionella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.

      In children, cavitation is associated with severe illness, although cases usually resolve without surgical intervention, and long-term follow-up radiography shows clear lungs without pulmonary sequelae
      Although the absolute cavitary rate may not be known, according to one series, necrotizing changes were seen in up to 6.6% of adults with pneumococcal pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is another organism that is known to cause cavitation.

      Causative agents:
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis
      Klebsiella pneumoniae
      Streptococcus pneumoniae
      Staphylococcus aureus

      Enterococcus faecalis was not found to be a causative agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (17/30) 57%
Passmed