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  • Question 1 - What is another name for the lateral sulcus? ...

    Correct

    • What is another name for the lateral sulcus?

      Your Answer: Sylvian fissure

      Explanation:

      The regions associated with language are located in the vicinity of the sylvian fissure of lateral sulcus.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the structure that carries the middle meningeal artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the structure that carries the middle meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Correct Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Explanation:

      Cranial Fossae and Foramina

      The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.

      There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:

      – Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
      – Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
      – Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
      – Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
      – Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.

      Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the total number of codon triplet sequences that can be formed...

    Correct

    • What is the total number of codon triplet sequences that can be formed from human DNA?

      Your Answer: 64

      Explanation:

      There are four different bases in DNA, and since a codon consists of three bases, there are 64 potential combinations of bases in a codon due to the formula 4 * 4 * 4.

      Codons and Amino Acids

      Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Zopiclone

      Explanation:

      The half-lives of benzodiazepines that are important to keep in mind are as follows: Diazepam has a half-life of 20-100 hours (with an active metabolite half-life of 36-200 hours), Lorazepam has a half-life of 10-20 hours, Chlordiazepoxide has a half-life of 5-30 hours (with an active metabolite half-life of 36-200 hours), and Nitrazepam has a half-life of 15-38 hours.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old man in your office who had a stroke...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old man in your office who had a stroke four weeks ago. His wife reports that he is having difficulty recognizing familiar faces, but is otherwise functioning normally. What is the most appropriate term for his condition?

      Your Answer: Prosopagnosia

      Explanation:

      Prosopagnosia is a condition where individuals are unable to recognize familiar faces, which can be caused by damage to the fusiform area of be congenital. Achromatopsia, on the other hand, is color blindness that can result from thalamus damage. Parietal lobe lesions can cause agraphesthesia, which is the inability to recognize numbers of letters traced on the palm, and astereognosis, which is the inability to recognize an item by touch. Lastly, phonagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar voices and is the auditory equivalent of prosopagnosia, although it is not as well-researched.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What medications have the potential to cause elevated levels of lithium in the...

    Correct

    • What medications have the potential to cause elevated levels of lithium in the body?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement accurately describes late onset Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes late onset Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: The APOE3 variant is considered the neutral variant

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      1347
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - How does depression in an otherwise fit individual impact the autonomous risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • How does depression in an otherwise fit individual impact the autonomous risk factor for the onset of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

      Your Answer: Triples the risk of CHD

      Correct Answer: Doubles the risk of CHD

      Explanation:

      Depression has been found to be strongly associated with cardiovascular disease, even after controlling for other risk factors such as smoking. Studies have demonstrated that depression is an independent predictor of both fatal and non-fatal ischaemic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: CN 2

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor metabolism of CYP2D6?

      Your Answer: Asian

      Correct Answer: Africans and African-Americans

      Explanation:

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which reflex involves the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerve in its motor component?...

    Incorrect

    • Which reflex involves the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerve in its motor component?

      Your Answer: Accommodation

      Correct Answer: Vestibulo-ocular

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in the DSM-5?

      Your Answer: Multiple personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The cavernous sinus is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cavernous sinus is?

      Your Answer: Medial to the body of the sphenoid

      Correct Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      333.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size?

      Your Answer: Red Bull

      Correct Answer: Brewed coffee

      Explanation:

      The caffeine content in brewed coffee is relatively high, with approximately 100 mg per cup. In comparison, tea has a lower caffeine content. Black tea has around 45 mg per cup, while green tea has approximately 25 mg per cup. Instant coffee contains about 60 mg per cup, and a can of Red Bull contains 80 mg of caffeine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which group is most commonly affected by pseudo-parkinsonism caused by typical antipsychotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which group is most commonly affected by pseudo-parkinsonism caused by typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: Elderly males

      Correct Answer: Elderly females

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the accurate formula for determining the likelihood ratio of a negative...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate formula for determining the likelihood ratio of a negative test result?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity / (1 - specificity)

      Correct Answer: (1 - sensitivity) / specificity

      Explanation:

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit egocentric behavior?

      Your Answer: Concrete operational stage

      Correct Answer: Preoperational stage

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s theory of cognitive development highlights that Preoperational children are egocentric, meaning they view the world solely from their own perspective and cannot comprehend that others may have different viewpoints. Piaget believed that cognitive development is a result of the interplay between innate abilities and environmental factors, and progresses through four distinct stages: the sensorimotor stage, Preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, and formal operational stage. While Piaget’s theory has greatly contributed to our understanding of cognitive development, it has also faced criticism over time. Other notable theories in this field include Vygotsky’s theory, Bruner’s theory, and the information-processing approach. Vygotsky’s theory, for instance, examines human development across three levels: cultural, interpersonal, and individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old male patient when asked by the psychiatrist to sit down in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient when asked by the psychiatrist to sit down in the consultation room takes three steps back from the chair. He eventually sits down when the psychiatrist insists.
      Which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Ambitendency

      Correct Answer: Negativism

      Explanation:

      Motor and Behavioural Disturbances in Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is often characterized by a range of motor and behavioural disturbances, which can be difficult to distinguish from one another. These disturbances can manifest in various ways, and may be arbitrary in nature.

      One common behavioural motor disorder seen in schizophrenia is negativism, which involves actively resisting attempts to make contact with the patient. This can make it challenging to communicate with and treat individuals with this condition.

      Another disturbance is in advertence, where the patient may turn towards the examiner in a bizarre, exaggerated, and inflexible manner when addressed. This can make it difficult to establish a rapport with the patient and understand their needs.

      Ambitendency is another common disturbance, where the patient alternates between cooperation and opposition, leading to unpredictable and diffident behaviour. This can make it challenging to establish a consistent treatment plan and maintain progress.

      Finally, satyriasis is a specific type of motor and behavioural disturbance seen in males with schizophrenia, characterized by excessive sexual activity. This can be a challenging symptom to manage and may require specialized treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old individual on lithium treatment experiences a fine tremor that is affecting...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual on lithium treatment experiences a fine tremor that is affecting their handwriting and causing embarrassment. Despite having normal lithium levels, what is the most effective solution to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Lithium-induced tremor is a prevalent issue that can be resolved by discontinuing the medication. Propranolol is the most effective treatment option based on available evidence, while levodopa and anticholinergic agents have not been shown to be effective.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What hormone is secreted by the gastrointestinal tract and has a significant impact...

    Correct

    • What hormone is secreted by the gastrointestinal tract and has a significant impact on digestion and feelings of fullness?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone produced and released by the duodenum that stimulates the secretion of digestive enzymes and bile, while also acting as an appetite suppressant. corticotropin releasing hormone is secreted by the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus and triggers the release of ACTH from the pituitary gland. Met- and Leu- encephalin are peptides that play a role in pain modulation. α-endorphin is one of several endorphins that can inhibit pain and induce a feeling of euphoria.

      Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16246215

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the neuroanatomical structure that was named after a seahorse due to...

    Correct

    • What is the neuroanatomical structure that was named after a seahorse due to its alleged resemblance?

      Your Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      Brain Structures and Their Etymologies

      The hippocampus, with its swirling shape, was named after the seahorse, combining the Greek words ‘hippos’ (horse) and ‘kampos’ (sea-monster). Meanwhile, the cerebellum, which resembles a smaller version of the brain, was named after the Latin word for ‘little brain’. The corpus callosum, a bundle of nerve fibers connecting the two hemispheres of the brain, was named after the Latin for ‘tough body’. The hypothalamus, located below the thalamus, was named after its position. Finally, the putamen, a structure involved in movement control, comes from the Latin word for ‘that which falls off in pruning’. These etymologies provide insight into the history and development of our understanding of the brain’s structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of these medications experience substantial liver metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these medications experience substantial liver metabolism?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      The majority of psychotropics undergo significant hepatic metabolism, with the exclusion of amisulpride, sulpiride, gabapentin, and lithium, which experience little to no hepatic metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way...

    Correct

    • Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way a drug works in the body?

      Your Answer: Competition at a receptor

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the neural mechanism that plays a crucial role in drug addiction...

    Incorrect

    • What is the neural mechanism that plays a crucial role in drug addiction by processing specific information about past experiences and the environment?

      Your Answer: Hippocampus

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Anatomy

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions responsible for different functions. The major areas of the cerebrum (telencephalon) include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, insula, corpus callosum, fornix, anterior commissure, and striatum. The cerebrum is responsible for complex learning, language acquisition, visual and auditory processing, memory, and emotion processing.

      The diencephalon includes the thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary, pineal gland, and mammillary body. The thalamus is a major relay point and processing center for all sensory impulses (excluding olfaction). The hypothalamus and pituitary are involved in homeostasis and hormone release. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate circadian rhythms. The mammillary body is a relay point involved in memory.

      The cerebellum is primarily concerned with movement and has two major hemispheres with an outer cortex made up of gray matter and an inner region of white matter. The cerebellum provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, coordinated movements and agility needed for daily life.

      The brainstem includes the substantia nigra, which is involved in controlling and regulating activities of the motor and premotor cortical areas for smooth voluntary movements, eye movement, reward seeking, the pleasurable effects of substance misuse, and learning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During a challenging meeting with a teenage client, they express that they feel...

    Incorrect

    • During a challenging meeting with a teenage client, they express that they feel you are condescending and don't value their opinions. Despite your best efforts, you are able to convince them to stay for the session and continue the assessment. As the session progresses, you start to feel frustrated and annoyed with the client's seemingly trivial issues and regret spending so much time on them.

      Which psychodynamic mechanism could be at play in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Countertransference

      Correct Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      Projective identification is a multifaceted mechanism that involves elements of transference, countertransference, and projection. It occurs when a patient’s mistaken belief leads them to behave in a manner that causes the other person in the interaction to adopt the attitudes that the patient wrongly attributed to them.

      For instance, a person at an airport who is overly anxious about being perceived as a terrorist may draw the attention of security guards. In a similar vein, a patient’s assumption that a doctor holds them in contempt may prompt them to act in a manner that elicits disrespectful feelings from the doctor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
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  • Question 27 - What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an...

    Correct

    • What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an MAOI who ingests tyramine?

      Your Answer: Norepinephrine

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a condition caused by the blockade of dopamine receptors.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - In comparison to which method of administration, is bioavailability defined as the proportion...

    Correct

    • In comparison to which method of administration, is bioavailability defined as the proportion of a drug that enters the systemic circulation after being administered through a specific route?

      Your Answer: Intravenous

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bioavailability in Drug Trials

      Bioavailability is a crucial factor in drug trials, as it determines the percentage of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation after administration. This can be affected by factors such as absorption and metabolic clearance. For example, if a drug called X is administered orally and only 60% reaches the systemic circulation, its bioavailability is 0.6 of 60%. However, if the same drug is administered intravenously, plasma levels may reach 100%.

      One way to potentially increase bioavailability is through the rectal route, which bypasses around two thirds of the first-pass metabolism. This is because the rectum’s venous drainage is two thirds systemic (middle and inferior rectal vein) and one third portal (superior rectal vein). As a result, drugs administered rectally may reach the circulatory system with less alteration and in greater concentrations. Understanding bioavailability and exploring different administration routes can help optimize drug efficacy in clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25 year old woman is started on semi-sodium valproate for bipolar disorder....

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman is started on semi-sodium valproate for bipolar disorder. After 3 months, she is found to have a slight increase in alanine aminotransferase levels. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that this is a benign finding , continue the valproate and recheck liver function in 12 months

      Correct Answer: Obtain a prothrombin time and continue valproate if normal

      Explanation:

      When transaminase levels are elevated, it is important to conduct further investigations into liver function. While albumin levels may eventually decrease in cases of liver failure, it is a slow process. Therefore, the prothrombin time / INR is a better investigation to consider. Although ultrasound can be useful in investigating abnormal liver function, it is not urgent in this case. Instead, a prothrombin time test would be the preferred investigation.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A parent with a child who has ADHD has been researching stimulant medications...

    Correct

    • A parent with a child who has ADHD has been researching stimulant medications online and wants to know your thoughts on the validity of a specific article. What statement in the article do you believe is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Clomipramine is recommended as a second line agent in OCD

      Explanation:

      Clomipramine as a Second-Line Treatment for OCD

      Paragraph: Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has a high affinity for serotonin receptors, making it the most serotonergic TCA. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend clomipramine as a second-line treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). However, patients may find antimuscarinic side effects, such as dry mouth and constipation, difficult to tolerate. It is worth noting that using TCAs for nerve and chronic pain is not an approved indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      33.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (4/7) 57%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Psychopharmacology (7/12) 58%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (1/2) 50%
Classification And Assessment (2/2) 100%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/1) 0%
Psychological Development (0/1) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Dynamic Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
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