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  • Question 1 - In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of...

    Correct

    • In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Non-gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (50% cases). Less common organisms include Mycoplasma genitalium, Urea urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis. Chlamydia is also the commonest cause of non-gonococcal cervicitis in women and proctitis in both sexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at...

    Incorrect

    • A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at C8 level. What would likely be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: The brachialis muscle will be paralysed

      Correct Answer: The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralysed

      Explanation:

      The eighth cervical nerve is one of the contributors of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles which include the opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and palmaris brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following coagulation factors is responsible for the formation of a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following coagulation factors is responsible for the formation of a complex with tissue factor to activate factors IX and X?

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      Factor VII, also known as proconvertin or stable factor, is a vitamin K–dependent protein that plays a central role in haemostasis and coagulation. Tissue factor is a protein that is normally not exposed on the surface of intact blood vessels. Damage to the vascular lumen leads to tissue factor exposure. The exposed tissue factor binds to factor VII. This facilitates the activation of factor VII to factor VIIa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Correct

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges.

      The middle meningeal artery is a large arterial branch of the maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery. Upon originating, the middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum. In the skull, it courses in the middle cranial fossa where it provides several branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis?

      Your Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      Papillary carcinoma accounts for 70-80% of all thyroid cancers and is seen commonly in people aged 30-60 years. It is more aggressive in elderly patients. 10-20% cases may have recurrence or persistent disease. More common in females with a female to male ratio of 3:1. Papillary carcinomas can also contain follicular carcinomas. The common route of spread is through lymphatics to regional nodes in one-third cases and pulmonary metastasis can also occur. Papillary carcinomas of the thyroid have the best prognosis, especially in patients less than 45 years of age with small tumours confined to the thyroid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      134.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused...

    Correct

    • Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused by ischaemia in the lateral part of the medulla oblongata and is commonly associated with numerous neurological symptoms. Which of the following arteries when occluded leads to this condition?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar

      Explanation:

      The lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg’s disease is also known as posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome (PICA). This syndrome is a clinical manifestation of the occlusion of the posterior cerebellar artery that results in symptoms of infarction of the lateral medullary oblongata. Other arteries that contribute to blood flow in to this region such are the vertebral artery, superior middle cerebellar and inferior medullary arteries can also result to this syndrome when occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      242.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?

      Your Answer: Medial group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon...

    Correct

    • When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?

      Your Answer: Cardiac stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      97.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      115
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all...

    Incorrect

    • Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: normal FEV1, arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Which of the following is most accurate about his residual volume?

      Your Answer: Is part of vital capacity

      Correct Answer: Cannot be measured directly with a spirometer

      Explanation:

      Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after maximal expiration is done. Thus, this is not a part of vital capacity and cannot be measured with a spirometer directly. It can be measured by the methods such as body plethysmography or inert gas dilution. Expiratory reserve volume is vital capacity minus inspiratory capacity. Resting volume of lungs is he sum of residual volume and expiratory reserve volume. Lungs recoil inward until the recoil pressure becomes zero, which corresponds to a volume significantly lower than residual volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      150.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34-year-old woman with severe burns, presented to casualty with a blood pressure...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman with severe burns, presented to casualty with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg and pulse of 172/minute. Obviously the patient is in shock. Which type of shock is it more likely to be?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemic shock

      Explanation:

      Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the organs and tissues of the body are not receiving a sufficient flow of blood. Lack of blood flow, oxygen and nutrients results in the inability to function properly and damage to many organs. Shock requires immediate treatment because, if left untreated the impaired tissue perfusion and cellular hypoxia can cause irreversible tissue injury, collapse, coma or even death. There are various types of physiological shock, including: cardiogenic (due to heart damage), hypovolaemic (due to low total volume of blood or plasma), neurogenic (due to nervous system damage), septic (due to infections) and anaphylactic shock (due to allergic reactions). Hypovolaemic shock can be caused by blood loss due to trauma, internal bleeding or other fluid loss due to severe burns, prolonged diarrhoea, vomiting and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is...

    Correct

    • If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      One of the complications of long-term intake of corticosteroids is osteoporosis. Some guidelines recommend prophylactic calcium and vitamin D supplementation in patients who take more than 30 mg hydrocortisone or 7.5 mg of prednisolone daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45 year-old female presents with a drooping eyelid. During examination, the same...

    Correct

    • A 45 year-old female presents with a drooping eyelid. During examination, the same pupil of the patient is found to be dilated. Which nerve could be involve in this case?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve controls most of the eye muscles. It also controls the constriction of the pupils and thickening of the lens of the eye. This can be tested in two main ways. By moving a finger toward a person’s face to induce accommodation, their pupils should constrict or shining a light into one eye should result in equal constriction of the other eye. The neurons in the optic nerve decussate in the optic chiasm with some crossing to the contralateral optic nerve tract. This is the basis of the swinging-flashlight test. Loss of accommodation and continued pupillary dilation can indicate the presence of a lesion of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow...

    Correct

    • A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?

      Your Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

      Explanation:

      The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      111.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is...

    Correct

    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is usually treated with piperacillin or another antibiotic. Which of the following is the other antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Azlocillin

      Explanation:

      Azlocillin, like piperacillin, is an acylampicillin antibiotic with an extended spectrum of activity and greater in vitro potency than the carboxypenicillins. Azlocillin is similar to mezlocillin and piperacillin. It demonstrates antibacterial activity against a broad spectrum of bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the...

    Correct

    • When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?

      Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A week after a renal transplant the patient received antilymphocyte globulins. Shortly after...

    Correct

    • A week after a renal transplant the patient received antilymphocyte globulins. Shortly after she developed fever and hypotension. Which of the following mechanisms is involved in this response?

      Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type III hypersensitivity is characterized by soluble immune complexes which are aggregations of IgG and IgM antibodies with antigens that deposit in different tissues e.g. the skin, joints, kidneys. They can then trigger an immune response by activating the complement cascade. This reaction can take hours to develop and examples include: immuno-complex glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, subacute bacterial endocarditis, arthus reaction and serum sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst...

    Incorrect

    • An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst the registrar was performing this procedure she made a median cut too far through the perineal body cutting the structure immediately posterior. Which structure is this?

      Your Answer: Bulbospongiosus muscle

      Correct Answer: External anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      An episiotomy is an incision that is made whenever there is a risk of a tear during vaginal deliver. A posterolateral incision, as opposed to a median incision is preferred. Of the options given, the external anal sphincter lies right posterior to the perineal body. The sacrospinous and the sacrotuberous ligaments are deep in the perineum that they should not be involved in this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      48.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (7/9) 78%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (5/8) 63%
Upper Limb (2/3) 67%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (3/3) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Passmed