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  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to have a markedly elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level.
      Which of the following would stimulate PTH release under normal circumstances? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
      PTH is synthesised by and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands that are located immediately behind the thyroid gland.
      PTH is released in response to the following stimuli:
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration (indirectly by binding to plasma calcium and reducing the calcium concentration)
      PTH release is inhibited by the following factors:
      Normal/increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia
      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man presents with a goitre, increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations....

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man presents with a goitre, increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is suspected.

      What is the most appropriate first-line investigation?

      Your Answer: TSH level

      Explanation:

      A thyroid function test is used in the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism.
      Serum TSH should be the first-line investigation for patients with suspected hyperthyroidism as it has the highest sensitivity and specificity for hyperthyroidism.

      A normal TSH level almost always excludes the diagnosis, though there are rare exceptions to this.

      Antithyroglobulin antibodies are commonly present in Graves’ disease, but the test has a sensitivity of 98% and specificity of 99, and is not widely available.

      Radioactive iodine uptake scan using iodine-123 – shows low uptake in thyroiditis but high in Graves’ disease and toxic multinodular goitre. It is however, not first-line investigation in this case

      Thyroid ultrasound scan – is a cost-effective and safe alternative to the radioactive iodine uptake scan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and confused. Her BM is 2.2 mmol/l and a dose of IM glucagon is administered.

      What is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, a peptide hormone, is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas.

      Its main physiological role is stimulation of hepatic glucose output leading to increase in blood glucose. It is the major counter-regulatory hormone to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.

      The principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia then stimulates:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue leading to increased glycaemia.

      Secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by arginine, alanine, adrenaline, acetylcholine and cholecystokinin

      Secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old woman has a history of hypertension and persistent hypokalaemia and is...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman has a history of hypertension and persistent hypokalaemia and is diagnosed with hyperaldosteronism.

      Which of these is the commonest cause of hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Adrenal adenoma

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive circulating levels of aldosterone, hyperaldosteronism occurs. There are two main types of hyperaldosteronism:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism (,95% of cases)
      Secondary hyperaldosteronism (,5% of cases)

      Primary causes of hyperaldosteronism include:
      Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal cancer
      Familial aldosteronism
      Secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism include:
      Drugs
      Obstructive renal artery disease
      Renal vasoconstriction
      Oedematous disorders syndrome

      Adrenal adenoma is the commonest cause of hyperaldosteronism (seen in ,80% of all cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated and she is started on carbimazole.

      A release of which of the following from the hypothalamus is inhibited by increase in T4 levels?

      Your Answer: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

      Explanation:

      A negative feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis controls the release of T3 and T4 into the bloodstream.

      When metabolic rate is low or serum T3 and/or T4 levels are decrease, this triggers the secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      TRH goes to the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

      An increased serum level of T3 and T4 inhibits the release of TRH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome and has a history of weight...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome and has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      Which of these assertions about Cushing's syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer: Diagnosis can be confirmed by a dexamethasone suppression test

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.

      Because cortisol enhances the vasoconstrictive impact of endogenous adrenaline, patients with Cushing’s syndrome are usually hypertensive.

      Hyperglycaemia (due to insulin resistance) rather than hypoglycaemia is a common symptom.
      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

      A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of these increases osteoclast activity? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these increases osteoclast activity?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Osteoclasts are bone cell that break down bone tissue.

      Parathyroid hormone increases osteoclastic activity.

      1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases osteoclastic activity

      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic activity

      Bisphosphonates are osteoclast inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium...

    Correct

    • Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Which of the following actions of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is a direct action?

      Your Answer: Increases renal phosphate reabsorption

      Explanation:

      The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.

      The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:

      Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
      Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
      Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
      Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback)
      Thyroid hormone (parathyroid hormone) Calcium reabsorption in the tubules of the kidneys is increased, but renal phosphate reabsorption is decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Insulin binds to the insulin receptor (IR) on cell surfaces to exert its...

    Correct

    • Insulin binds to the insulin receptor (IR) on cell surfaces to exert its action. The IR is a very specific transmembrane receptor belonging to the tyrosine kinase receptor class.

      One of these also activates the IR:

      Your Answer: IGF-I

      Explanation:

      Insulin receptor (IR), in addition to being activated by insulin, is also activated by IGF-I and IGF-II.

      The IR is a dimer with two identical subunits spanning the cell membrane and are connected by a single disulphide bond. The two sub-units include: The alpha chain situated on the exterior of the cell membrane and the beta chain spanning the cell membrane in a single segment.

      When insulin is detected, the alpha chains move together folding around the insulin making the beta chains move together, converting them into an active tyrosine kinase. This initiates a phosphorylation cascade increasing the expression of GLUT4 and allowing uptake of glucose by cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon INHIBITS which of the following processes? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The hydrolysis of triglycerides

      Correct Answer: Glycolysis

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Osteoclasts are a type of bone cell that are critical in the maintenance,...

    Correct

    • Osteoclasts are a type of bone cell that are critical in the maintenance, repair and remodelling of bones.
      Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Osteoclasts are a type of bone cell that breaks down bone tissue. This is a critical function in the maintenance, repair and remodelling of bones. The osteoclast disassembles and digests the composite of hydrated protein and minerals at a molecular level by secreting acid and collagenase. This process is known as bone resorption and also helps to regulate the plasma calcium concentration.
      Osteoclastic activity is controlled by a number of hormones:
      1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases osteoclastic activity
      Parathyroid hormone increases osteoclastic activity
      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic activity
      Bisphosphonates are a class of drug that slow down and prevent bone damage. They are osteoclast inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old with type I diabetes mellitus has an episode of hypoglycaemia following...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old with type I diabetes mellitus has an episode of hypoglycaemia following inadvertent administration of too much insulin.

      The mechanism by which insulin causes glucose to be transported into cells is?

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      The only mechanism by which insulin facilitates uptake of glucose into cells is by facilitated diffusion through a family of hexose transporters.

      The major transporter used for glucose uptake is GLUT4. GLUT4 is made available in the plasma membrane by the action of insulin.
      When insulin concentrations are low, GLUT4 transporters are present in cytoplasmic vesicles, where they are cannot be used for transporting glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You see a patient in the Emergency Department with features consistent with a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient in the Emergency Department with features consistent with a diagnosis of type I diabetes mellitus.

      Which of these is MOST suggestive of type I diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Onset under the age of 20

      Correct Answer: History of recent weight loss

      Explanation:

      A history of recent weight loss is very suggestive of an absolute deficiency of insulin seen in type I diabetes mellitus.

      An age of onset of less than 20 years makes a diagnosis of type I diabetes mellitus more likely. However, an increasing number of obese children and young people are being diagnosed with type II diabetes.

      Microalbuminuria, peripheral neuropathy, and retinopathy all occur in both type I and type II diabetes mellitus. They are not more suggestive of type I DM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient in the Emergency Department had a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the Emergency Department had a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and you commence an insulin infusion. Which of these statements concerning endogenous insulin is true?

      Your Answer: Glucagon inhibits insulin release

      Correct Answer: Insulin has a short half-life of around 5-10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Insulin, a peptide hormone, is produced in the pancreas by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans.

      The beta-cells first synthesise an inactive precursor called preproinsulin which is converted to proinsulin by signal peptidases, which remove a signal peptide from the N-terminus.

      Proinsulin is converted to insulin by the removal of the C-peptide.

      Insulin has a short half-life in the circulation of about 5-10 minutes.
      Glucagon and parasympathetic stimulation stimulates insulin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient had a left Colles' fracture, which you were able to repair. It...

    Correct

    • A patient had a left Colles' fracture, which you were able to repair. It was their second fragility fracture this year, and you'd like to provide them some tips on how to keep their bones healthy.

      What percentage of the calcium in the body is kept in the bones? Only ONE response is acceptable.

      Your Answer: 99%

      Explanation:

      Calcium is stored in bones for nearly all of the body’s calcium, but it is also found in some cells (most notably muscle cells) and the blood. The average adult diet comprises roughly 25 mmol of calcium per day, of which the body absorbs only about 5 mmol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with Cushing's disease. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with Cushing's disease. She has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      In this patient, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY UNDERLYING CAUSE?

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a collection of symptoms and signs caused by prolonged exposure to elevated levels of either endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is the iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids. The second most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is Cushing’s disease.

      Cushing’s disease should be distinguished from Cushing’s syndrome and refers to one specific cause of the syndrome, an adenoma of the pituitary gland that secretes large amounts of ACTH and, in turn, elevates cortisol levels. This patient has a diagnosis of Cushing’s disease, and this is, therefore, the underlying cause in this case.

      The endogenous causes of Cushing’s syndrome include:
      Pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s disease)
      Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell carcinoma of the lung
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal adenoma
      Adrenal carcinoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.

      Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Conn’s syndrome
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal cancer
      Familial aldosteronism

      Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Renal vasoconstriction
      Oedematous disorders
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease

      Although patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:
      Hypokalaemia
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Hypertension
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Less common, clinical features are:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure,...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure, weakness, weight loss, and skin discoloration. An adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test is scheduled as part of her treatment.

      Which of the following statements about ACTH is correct?

      Your Answer: It is released in response to the release of CRH

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland produces and secretes a peptide hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (adenohypophysis). It is secreted in response to the hypothalamus’s secretion of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).

      ACTH promotes cortisol secretion via binding to cell surface ACTH receptors in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.

      ACTH also promotes the production of beta-endorphin, which is a precursor to melanocyte-releasing hormone (MRH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms that a patient may experience in Addison's disease.

      Which of the following claims about Addison's disease is correct?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia is a common feature

      Correct Answer: ACTH levels are elevated in primary insufficiency

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands produce too little steroid hormones, which causes Addison’s disease. The production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are all altered. The most prevalent cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for 70-80 percent of cases.

      It affects more women than males and occurs most frequently between the ages of 30 and 50.

      The following are some of the clinical signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease:

      Weakness and sluggishness
      Hypotension is a condition in which the blood pressure (notably orthostatic hypotension)
      Vomiting and nausea
      Loss of weight
      Axillary and pubic hair loss
      Depression
      Hyperpigmentation is a condition in which a person’s (palmar creases, buccal mucosa and exposed areas more commonly affected)
      The following are the classic biochemical hallmarks of Addison’s disease:
      Hyponatraemia
      Hyperkalaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypoglycaemia
      Acidosis metabolica
      When ACTH levels are combined with cortisol levels, it is possible to distinguish between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:
      In primary insufficiency, levels rise.
      In secondary insufficiency, levels are low or low normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms,...

    Correct

    • A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms, the results are shown below:
      TSH = 5.2
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      The most likely diagnosis in this patient is?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed using the results of thyroid function tests (TFTs).

      In the early stages of the disease, the earliest biochemical change noticed is a rise in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. Free triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are usually normal.

      In primary hypothyroidism, the serum TSH level is usually greater than 10 mU/L, and free T4 levels are below the reference range.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when the serum TSH level is above the reference range, and the free T4 levels are within the reference range. The test should, however, be repeated after 3-6 months to exclude transient causes of raised TSH.

      In summary, how to interpret TFTs in cases of suspected hypothyroidism is shown below:

      Subclinical hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      Primary hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

      Secondary hypothyroidism
      TSH is lowered or normal
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism is made.

      Which biochemical pictures would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone outside of the renin-angiotensin axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. High renin levels will lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism.

      The classical presentation of hyperaldosteronism when symptoms are present include:
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hypertension
      Normal or slightly raised sodium levels

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?
    ...

    Correct

    • Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?

      Your Answer: G-protein coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Glucagon binds to class B G-protein coupled receptors and activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP intracellularly.

      This activates protein kinase A. Protein kinase A phosphorylates and activates important enzymes in target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration...

    Correct

    • Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.

      Which pancreatic islet cells secretes glucagon?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, secreted from the pancreatic islet alpha cells, is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream

      There are five different pancreatic islet cells:
      Alpha cells (20%) – produce glucagon
      Beta cells (70%) – produce insulin and amylin
      Delta cells (<10%) – produce somatostatin
      Gamma cells (<5%) – produce pancreatic polypeptide
      Epsilon cells (<1%) – produce ghrelin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You review an 83-year-old woman who has stage 5 chronic kidney disease. She...

    Correct

    • You review an 83-year-old woman who has stage 5 chronic kidney disease. She has a number of electrolyte problems.
      Which ONE of the following decreases the renal reabsorption of phosphate?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
      The main actions of parathyroid hormone are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.

      Which of the following biochemical profiles best supports this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      A typical biochemical profile can help establish a diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. The following are the primary characteristics:
      Hypokalaemia
      Alkalosis metabolique

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle weakness and headaches. She is known to be hypertensive and takes amlodipine to control this. Her blood results today show that her potassium level is low at 3.0 mmol/L, and her sodium level is slightly elevated at 146 mmol/L.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL investigation?

      Your Answer: Plasma renin and aldosterone levels

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism occurs when there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin axis. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.
      The causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) – the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism (,80% of all cases). These are usually unilateral and solitary and are more common in women.
      Adrenal hyperplasia – this accounts for ,15% of all cases. Usually, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (BAH) but can be unilateral rarely. More common in men than women.
      Adrenal cancer – a rare diagnosis but essential not to miss
      Familial aldosteronism – a rare group of inherited conditions affecting the adrenal glands
      The causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease – renal artery stenosis and atheroma
      Renal vasoconstriction – occurs in accelerated hypertension
      Oedematous disorders – heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome
      Patients are often asymptomatic. When clinical features are present, the classically described presentation of hyperaldosteronism is with:
      Hypertension
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Other, less common, clinical features include:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)
      Often the earliest sign of hyperaldosteronism is from aberrant urea and electrolytes showing hypokalaemia and mild hypernatraemia. If the patient is taking diuretics, and the diagnosis is suspected, these should be repeated after the patient has taken off diuretics.
      If the diagnosis is suspected, plasma renin and aldosterone levels should be checked. Low renin and high aldosterone levels (with a raised aldosterone: renin ratio) is suggestive of primary aldosteronism.
      If the renin: aldosterone ratio is high, then the effect of posture on renin, aldosterone and cortisol can be investigated to provide further information about the underlying cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Levels should be measured lying at 9 am and standing at noon:
      If aldosterone and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an ACTH dependent cause, e.g. adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)
      If aldosterone levels rise and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an angiotensin-II dependent cause, e.g. BAH
      Other investigations that can help to distinguish between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia include:
      CT scan
      MRI scan
      Selective adrenal venous sampling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is suspected.

      Which of these changes is likely to appear first in primary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      The earliest biochemical change seen in hypothyroidism is an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.

      Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are normal in the early stages.

      TBG levels are generally unchanged in primary hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.
      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

      Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.

      In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.

      A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy...

    Correct

    • You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy bruising in the past. She exhibits considerable face fullness and truncal obesity on examination. You diagnose her�with Cushing's syndrome.
      When would her random cortisol level likely be abnormal?

      Your Answer: 2400 hrs

      Explanation:

      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep.

      The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.2
      Seconds

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Endocrine Physiology (24/30) 80%
Physiology (24/30) 80%
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