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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?
Your Answer: Parafollicular cells
Correct Answer: Chief cells
Explanation:Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine?
Your Answer: Norepinephrine
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:Acetylcholine is a major neurotransmitter in the peripheral nervous system. Monoamine neurotransmitters contain only one amino group joined to an aromatic ring. Acetylcholine is produced from acetyl-CoA and choline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to:
Your Answer: Hydrogen
Correct Answer: Adenine
Explanation:As a general rule in the structure of DNA, thymine always binds to adenine with two hydrogen bonds, cytosine always binds to guanine with three hydrogen bonds and vice versa. However In the structure of RNA the only difference is that adenine binds to uracil instead of thymine. But thymine will always bind to adenine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Coronary vasoconstriction can be caused by:
Your Answer: Prostaglandins
Correct Answer: Beta blockage
Explanation:Coronary arteries contain alpha and beta receptors. The alpha receptor stimulates vasoconstriction and beta receptors stimulate vasodilation. When the chronotropic and inotropic effects of noradrenergic receptors are blocked by a B blocking drug, stimulation of the noradrenergic nerves will cause coronary vasoconstriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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Bronchial smooth muscle:
Your Answer: Tone is increased by cholinergic discharge
Explanation:The lungs are supplied by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. The parasympathetic innervation is supplied by the vagus nerve. The parasympathetic nervous system is the dominant neuronal pathway in the control of airway smooth muscle tone. Stimulation of cholinergic nerves causes bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion, and bronchial vasodilation. Sympathetic innervation is supplied by the T1 to T5 of the spinal cord and act mainly via beta adrenergic receptors. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute?
Your Answer: Prophase
Correct Answer: Telophase
Explanation:In telophase the nuclear envelope along with the nucleolus will reappear. The daughter nuclei will enlarge as the chromosome will decondense again. Along with this, cytokinesis will occur. At the end of cytokinesis the daughter centrioles will move from the poles to the intercellular bridge where they will be disassembled and complete the separation of the daughter cells
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An important hormone controlling the differentiation of monocytes to osteoclasts, by inhibiting the RANKL/ RANK interaction is called?
Your Answer: Osteoprotectin
Correct Answer: Osteoprotegerin
Explanation:Osteoprotegerin, also known as osteoclastogenesis inhibitory factor (OCIF) is a glycoprotein that acts as a cytokine receptor. It works as a decoy receptor for the receptor activator of nuclear factor-kappaB ligand (RANKL)/osteoclast differentiation factor, thus inhibiting the differentiation of osteoclasts, which are capable of resorbing bone. Osteoprotegerin has been proposed as a therapeutic agent for osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Question 9
Correct
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What type of intercellular connection found between cardiac muscle fibers allow for the spread of excitation from one cell to another?
Your Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in-between the cells. They form low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The following are synthesized in the liver EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Antithrombin-iii
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:The liver is responsible for the mainstay of protein metabolism, synthesis as well as degradation. It is also responsible for a large part of amino acid synthesis. The liver plays a role in the production of clotting factors as well as red blood cell production. Some of the proteins synthesized by the liver include coagulation factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XIII, as well as protein C, protein S and antithrombin. The liver is a major site of production for thrombopoietin, a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the production of platelets by the bone marrow. The liver also produces albumin, the most abundant protein in blood serum and angiotensinogen. Cholecystokinin, previously called pancreozymin, is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each year is:
Your Answer: 10 per 1000
Correct Answer: 1 per 1000
Explanation:About 1 in 1000 adults per year has DVT, but as of 2011, available data is dominated by North American and European populations. DVT is rare in children, with an incidence of about 1 in 100,000 a year. From childhood to old age, incidence increases by a factor of about 1000, with almost 1% of the elderly experiencing DVTs yearly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?
Your Answer: Cortisol
Explanation:The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly via the:
Your Answer: All arterioles empty into the coronary sinus or anterior cardiac vein
Correct Answer: Arteriosinusoidal vessels
Explanation:Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers. They include arteriosinusoidal vessels, which connect the arterioles to the heart chambers. The thebesian veins drain the capillaries into the chambers and the arterioluminal vessels drain small arteries directly into the chambers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which statement is correct?
Your Answer: Mitochondrial DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell.
Correct Answer: MtDNA principally encodes for proteins that are involved in oxidative phosphorylation for the production of ATP in the cell.
Explanation:Mitochondria have no nucleus instead they contain their own free floating circular genome (MtDNA), which encodes 13 different subunits of proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation. The remainder of the mitochondrial proteins are nuclear encoded, synthesized in the cytoplasm, and transported into the mitochondria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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The following contributes to the rate of depolarization?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Depolarization occurs due to impulses generated by the SA node. As the heart beats to the rhythm of the SA node, certain factors will effect the rate of depolarization. All the above mentioned options effect the rate of depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by?
Your Answer: Schwann cells
Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes
Explanation:CNS myelin is produced by special cells called oligodendrocytes. PNS myelin is produced by Schwann cells. The two types of myelin are chemically different, but they both perform the same function — to promote efficient transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Bone marrow barrier is important to:
Your Answer: All of the above
Correct Answer: Allow mature red blood cells to pass into circulation
Explanation:The blood vessels of the bone marrow constitute a barrier, inhibiting immature blood cells from leaving the marrow. Only mature blood cells contain the membrane proteins, such as aquaporin and glycophorin, that are required to attach to and pass the blood vessel endothelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from
Your Answer: Carbohydrates
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:The energy required for sustained exercise is provided by the oxidation of two fuels, glucose stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and long-chain fatty acids, stored as adipose tissue triglycerides. The latter provides the largest energy reserve in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following skin coloration abnormalities occurs due to adrenal insufficiency due to primary adrenal disease?
Your Answer: Hyperpigmentation
Explanation:Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency, or hypocortisolism is an endocrine disorder. Hyperpigmentation is one of its most common signs; it occurs as a result of an increase in pro-opiomelanocortin to produce more ACTH in response to the decreased levels of cortisol. Pro-opiomelanocortin is a precursor of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), which stimulates melanocytes, causing darkening of the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?
Your Answer: Spinocerebellar
Correct Answer: Reticulospinal
Explanation:Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?
Your Answer: Lung cancer
Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 23
Correct
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The conversion of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate is catalysed by:
Your Answer: Fructokinase
Explanation:The first step in the metabolism of fructose is the phosphorylation of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate by fructokinase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Select a factor which stimulates glucagon secretion.
Your Answer: Somatostatin
Correct Answer: Protein meal
Explanation:Several studies have shown that glucagon levels are increased in individuals with a high protein diet. It is still debated, however, whether this type of diet affects insulin levels as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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On which presynaptic receptor does noradrenalin act to inhibit noradrenalin secretion?
Your Answer: Î’1 receptor
Correct Answer: Α2 receptor
Explanation:Adregenic receptors are A1, A2, B1, B2, B3. Out of these, the function of the A2 receptor is inhibition of transmitter release including nor adrenalin and acetylcholine of the autonomic nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students about skeletal muscle physiology and its use in clinical medicine. They pose a series of difficult questions to you. Which of the following definitions for the A-band of the sarcomere is correct?
Your Answer: A band that contains the entire length of a single thick filament (myosin)
Explanation:Myofibrils, which are around 1 m in diameter, make up each myofiber. The cytoplasm separates them and arranges them in a parallel pattern along the cell’s long axis. These myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin filaments that are repeated in sarcomeres, which are the myofiber’s basic functional units. Myofilaments are the filaments that make up myofibrils, and they’re made mostly of proteins. Myofilaments are divided into three categories: Myosin filaments are thick filaments made up mostly of the protein myosin. Actin filaments are thin filaments made up mostly of the protein actin. Elastic filaments are mostly made up of the protein titin. The sarcomere is a Z-line segment that connects two adjacent Z-lines. The I-bands are thin filament zones that run from either side of the Z-lines to the thick filament’s beginning. Between the I-bands is the A-band, which spans the length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is a zone of thick filaments that is not overlaid by thin filaments in the sarcomere’s centre. The H-zone keeps the myosin filaments in place by surrounding them with six actin filaments each. The M-band (or M-line) is a disc of cross-connecting cytoskeleton elements in the centre of the H-zone. The thick filament is primarily made up of myosin. The thin filament is primarily made up of actin. Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin are found in a 7:1:1 ratio in thin filaments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?
Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes
Explanation:Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid?
Your Answer: All of the options
Explanation:The thyroid gland receives its blood supply from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries. The recurrent laryngeal nerves emerges from the superior thoracic outlet bounded in part by the thyroid lobe. Two pairs of parathyroid glands lie near the thyroid. The common carotid artery splits into its external and internal branches at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage; these branches are separated by the gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Are glial cells
Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines
Explanation:The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?
Your Answer: Penicillin
Explanation:Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 31
Correct
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What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential?
Your Answer: Gated Na channels open allowing the influx of Na
Explanation:Generation of an action potential in response to a stimulus is a result of a previously maintained resting membrane potential (RMP). Generation of resting membrane potential is mediated mainly by potassium ions. Several membrane proteins maintain RMP by transport of ions in and out of cell. Na+/K+ ATPase pump maintains a concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions. Na+ concentration in extracellular fluid is higher compared to intracellular fluid and K+ ion concentration is higher intracellularly. Generation of an action potential facilitates opening of Na+ ion channels which allow for Na+ to diffuse inside the cell according to the concentration gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated?
Your Answer: Smooth muscle contraction ahead of the stimulus
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle relaxation ahead of the stimulus
Explanation:Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Nitric oxide causes relaxation of smooth muscles ahead of the stimulus. Clinically used as a potent vasodilator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 33
Correct
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All valves are closed in which phase of the cardiac cycle?
Your Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation
Explanation:The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.The first stage, diastole, is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. The second stage, atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle.The third stage, isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. The fourth stage, ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. During the fifth stage, isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?
Your Answer: Ca++ plays a role in the delay
Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation
Explanation:AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 35
Correct
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The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:
Your Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase
Explanation:Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5′-3′ direction resulting in extension of the already 3′ end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Efferent innervation of the muscle spindle is supplied by which type of motor neuron?
Your Answer: Beta – motor neuron
Correct Answer: Gama – motor neuron
Explanation:The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is via Type Ia fibers whereas the motor supply is via gamma motor neurons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?
Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 39
Correct
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Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse?
Your Answer: Acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine into choline and acetate. Both of these molecules are transported back to the presynaptic neuron to be synthesized again. This enzyme is attached to the collagen fibers of the basement membrane in the synaptic cleft.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?
Your Answer: 11β-hydroxylase
Correct Answer: 5α-reductase
Explanation:The enzyme 5α-reductase synthesizes DHT from testosterone in the prostate, testes, hair follicles, and adrenal glands. This enzyme reduces the 4,5 double-bond of the testosterone. Relative to testosterone, DHT is much more potent as an agonist of the androgen receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Eosinophils provide immunity against
Your Answer: Bacteria
Correct Answer: Multi cellular parasites
Explanation:Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 42
Correct
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time
Your Answer: Prevalence
Correct Answer: Sero-Prevalence
Explanation:n immunology, seroconversion is the time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody. Sero-prevalence includes Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 44
Correct
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Inhibition of cell division at the end of G1 occurs through:
Your Answer: Unphosphorolated retinoblastoma protein (uRb)
Explanation:A cell’s decision to enter, or re-enter, the cell cycle is made before S-phase in G1 at what is known as the restriction point, and is determined by the combination of promotional and inhibitory extracellular signals that are received and processed. Ultimately unphosphorylated Rb acts as an inhibitor of G1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the neutrophil?
Your Answer: NADPh oxidase
Explanation:Catalase Degrades H2O2 to H20 and O2, Superoxide Dismutase Forms H2O2, Myeloperoxidase Converts Br/I/Cl to acids
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In the microanatomy of the pituitary gland, the pituicytes present are in fact modified forms of which cells?
Your Answer: Stem cells
Correct Answer: Astrocytes
Explanation:Pituicytes are glial cells present in the pars nervosa, the posterior pituitary gland. Their irregular shape resembles that of astrocytes, and their cytoplasm also has intermediate filaments. They differ from astrocytes in that they have large cytoplasmic lipid droplets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?
Your Answer: Propafenone
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 48
Correct
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There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:
Your Answer: All of the options are correct
Explanation:There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active B lymphocyte proliferation?
Your Answer: Paracortex
Correct Answer: Germinal centre
Explanation:The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 50
Correct
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Regarding carbohydrates absorption;
Your Answer: Intestinal absorption of sugars is inhibited by the drug phlorizin
Explanation:The main role of insulin is in the uptake of glucose from blood to tissues where it is metabolised. Glycose transporters in the intestines do not depend on the action of insulin. Phlorizin is a competitive inhibitor of SGLT1 and SGLT2 because it competes with glucose for the binding site, reducing intestinal and renal glucose transport.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
