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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?
Your Answer: Infliximab
Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks
Explanation:The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Iron-deficiency anaemia
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the 50th to the 9th percentile on the growth chart for weight. History reveals the baby vomits after each meal. Gestation and delivery were normal without any perinatal or postnatal complications. The baby was healthy at the new-born examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis affects infants, typically in the second to fourth weeks of life and is caused most commonly by hypertrophy and thickening of the pylorus. It usually presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. The infant usually has a normal appetite. Features include: ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed, constipation and dehydration may also be present and a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: VACTERL
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duodenal atresia
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Xanthomas
Explanation:CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?
Your Answer: Albumin
Explanation:The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer: Breast milk jaundice
Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glasgow score
Correct Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?
Your Answer: The last two thirds of the rectum
Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum
Explanation:The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum. The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum. The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery. The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?
Your Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer: Vasovagal reflex
Correct Answer: Gastrocolic reflex
Explanation:The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A male term infant was admitted to the neonatal unit on day 4 for severe jaundice. The bilirubin at that time was 320 mmol/l, which decreased with phototherapy. At day 30, the baby still required phototherapy to keep the bilirubin below the treatment line. On examination, the skin had a tanned appearance and his sclerae were icteric. Mother’s blood group was A+, the baby's blood group was A+, direct Coombs test (DCT) was negative. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Explanation:Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by an inability to properly convert and clear bilirubin from the body.The hallmark finding of Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a persistent yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes and whites of the eyes (jaundice).There are two forms of this disorder: Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I, characterized by a nearly complete lack of enzyme activity and severe, even life-threatening symptoms| and Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II, characterized by partial enzyme activity and milder symptoms. Both forms are inherited as autosomal recessive traits and are caused by errors or disruptions (mutations) of the UGT1A1 gene.The symptoms of Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I become apparent shortly after birth. Affected infants develop severe, persistent yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes and whites of the eyes (jaundice). These symptoms persist after the first three weeks of life.Infants are at risk for developing kernicterus, also known as bilirubin encephalopathy, within the first month of life.Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II is a milder disorder than type I. Affected infants develop jaundice, which increases during times when an infant is sick (concurrent illness), has not eaten for an extended period (prolonged fasting) or is under general anaesthesia. Some people have not been diagnosed until they are adults. Kernicterus is rare in Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II, but can occur especially when an affected individual is sick, not eating or under anaesthesia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever and pigmented spots around his mouth, palms and soles. He had a reduction of an intussusception at 12 years of age. Which of the following lesions are most likely to be observed on a colonoscopy examination?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Hamartomas
Explanation:Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps in association with a distinct pattern of skin and mucosal macular melanin deposition (freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles). Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an estimated 15-fold increased risk of developing intestinal cancer compared to the general population.Management: conservative unless complications develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6–9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin and omeprazole for 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation:European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer: Intravenous steroids
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?
Your Answer: It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium with sheathed flagella
Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach
Explanation:H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Capillary blood gas
Explanation:One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The father of a 3 month old baby presents to the child health clinic complaining that his child passes only one hard stool a day. He has tried to bicycle his legs and massage his abdomen but has not been successful. The baby seems to be growing well, and nothing of concern was found on clinical examination. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Prescribe lactulose
Correct Answer: Advise extra water in between feeds
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, the frequency of stool passage is considered constipation when two or more of the following findings are present: Fewer than 3 stools a week, large hard stools, stools that resemble rabbit droppings| symptoms associated with defecation including distress, bleeding or straining| a history of previous episodes of a precious/current anal fissure. The child in the scenario fails to meet the criteria, and has no evidence of impacted faeces on examination. The best course of action is to encourage the parents to give the child more water to prevent dehydration, and feed the child a fibre rich diet including fruits, vegetables and high fibre bread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute hepatitis
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?
Your Answer: Small intestine
Correct Answer: Large intestine
Explanation:Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He was born at 34 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery and was discharged 4 weeks ago. He is not on any regular medication. Parents said that he brings up small volumes of milk after feeds. This happens approximately twice a day. Observations are all within normal range and examination is unremarkable.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Overfeeding
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux occurs in almost all infants, manifesting as wet burps after feeding. The spit-ups appear effortless and not particularly forceful.Infants in whom reflux has caused GERD have additional symptoms, such as irritability, feeding refusal, and/or respiratory symptoms such as chronic recurrent coughing or wheezing and sometimes stridor. Much less commonly, infants have intermittent apnoea or episodes of arching the back and turning the head to one side (Sandifer syndrome). Infants may fail to gain weight appropriately or, less often, lose weight.Incidence of gastroesophageal reflux increases between 2 months and 6 months of age (likely due to an increased volume of liquid at each feeding) and then starts to decrease after 7 months. Gastroesophageal reflux resolves in about 85% of infants by 12 months and in 95% by 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia, and dysphagia. On examination, patchy white spots were noted in his oropharynx. An upper GI endoscopy revealed similar lesions in the oesophagus. Which of the following is most likely to identify the underlying pathology in this patient?
Your Answer: Oesophageal biopsy for culture
Correct Answer: Viral serology
Explanation:Based on the given scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Thus, the most appropriate investigation to confirm the underlying pathology in this patient would be viral serology. Rationale:The presence of oesophageal candidiasis is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression. The causes of immunosuppression can be chemotherapy, with haematological malignancy, HIV or inhaled steroids. In patients with HIV, oesophageal candidiasis is part of the spectrum of AIDS-defining illnesses and usually occurs when the CD4 count is < 200 cells/microL. Other AIDS-defining illnesses include PCP pneumonia and CMV infections.Oesophageal Candidiasis:It is characterised by white spots in the oropharynx with extension into the oesophagus. It seldom occurs without an associated underlying risk factor like broad-spectrum antibiotic usage, immunosuppression and immunological disorders.Patients may present with oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia and dysphagia.Treatment is directed both at the underlying cause (which should be investigated for) and with oral antifungal agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer: Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy from the age of 15 years
Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.The most likely organism causing her disease is?
Your Answer: Listeria monocytogenes
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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