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  • Question 1 - Regarding cardiac contractility, catecholamines exert their inotropic effect via: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac contractility, catecholamines exert their inotropic effect via:

      Your Answer: Β1-adrenergic receptors and gs

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines exert their inotropic effect on the heart via the B1 adrenergic receptors and Gs, stimulating adenyl cyclase and increasing the production of cAMP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin? ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin?

      Your Answer: All the options are true

      Explanation:

      The strength with which oxygen binds to haemoglobin is affected by several factors. These factors shift or reshape the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. A rightward shift indicates that the haemoglobin under study has a decreased affinity for oxygen. The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, CADET, face Right! for CO2 and CO, Acid (H+), 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly? ...

    Correct

    • The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?

      Your Answer: C fibers

      Explanation:

      According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?...

    Correct

    • The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?

      Your Answer: Action potential

      Explanation:

      This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Occurs in the kidney & liver

      Explanation:

      Oxidative deamination is a form of deamination that generates α-keto acids and other oxidized products from amine-containing compounds, and occurs largely in the liver and kidney. Oxidative deamination is an important step in the catabolism of amino acids, generating a more metabolizable form of the amino acid, and also generating ammonia as a toxic by-product. The addition of ubiquitin to a substrate protein is called ubiquitination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain? ...

    Correct

    • The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain?

      Your Answer: Medulla and midbrain

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - With regards to the cardiac cycle which of the following is true ...

    Correct

    • With regards to the cardiac cycle which of the following is true

      Your Answer: Right atrial systole occurs before left atrial systole: as below

      Explanation:

      Cardiac cycle: The first event in the cycle is atrial depolarization (a P wave on the surface ECG) follows by RIGHT ATRIAL and then LEFT ATRIAL contraction. Ventricular activation (QRS) follows after a short interval (the PR interval). LEFT VENTRICULAR contraction starts shortly thereafter RIGHT VENTRICULAR contraction begins. At the end, the aortic valve closure is followed by pulmonary valve closure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and...

    Correct

    • When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and the protein produced by the normal form of the gene cannot compensate. The affected individual has an:

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant disorder

      Explanation:

      An autosomal dominant trait will be expressed no matter the consequence. If one chromosome has a mutation the other will not be able to compensate for the mutation hence the protein formed will be mutated and will not function properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair: ...

    Correct

    • Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair:

      Your Answer: Parietal cells and chief cells

      Explanation:

      In the body of the stomach, the vagal postganglionic muscarinic nerves release acetylcholine(ACh) which stimulates parietal cell H+ secretion. Gastric chief cells are primarily activated by ACh. However the decrease in pH caused by activation of parietal cells further activates gastric chief cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient? ...

    Correct

    • How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient?

      Your Answer: Increased cardiac output due to increase in heart rate and stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Output increases to a similar degree as the blood volume. During the first trimester cardiac output is 30-40% higher than in the non-pregnant state. Steady rises are shown on Doppler echocardiography, from an average of 6.7 litres/minute at 8-11 weeks to about 8.7 litres/minute flow at 36-39 weeks; they are due, primarily, to an increase in stroke volume (35%) and, to a lesser extent, to a more rapid heart rate (15%). There is a steady reduction in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) which contributes towards the hyperdynamic circulation observed in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate?

      Your Answer: Green leafy vegetables

      Explanation:

      Folate naturally occurs in a wide variety of foods, including vegetables (particularly dark green leafy vegetables), fruits and fruit juices, nuts, beans, peas, dairy products, poultry and meat, eggs, seafood, grains, and some beers. Avocado, beetroot, spinach, liver, yeast, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts are among the foods with the highest levels of folate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In the Fick‘s method of measuring cardiac output, the arterial oxygen content can...

    Correct

    • In the Fick‘s method of measuring cardiac output, the arterial oxygen content can be measured in a sample obtained from

      Your Answer: The pulmonary vein

      Explanation:

      In Fick’s original method, the following variables are measured:VO2, oxygen consumption in ml of pure gaseous oxygen per minute. This may be measured using a spirometer within a closed rebreathing circuit incorporating a CO2 absorberCa, the oxygen concentration of blood taken from the pulmonary vein (representing oxygenated blood)Cv, the oxygen concentration of blood from an intravenous cannula (representing deoxygenated blood)From these values, we know that:VO2 = (CO x Ca) – (CO x Cv)where CO = Cardiac Output, Ca = Oxygen concentration of arterial blood and Cv = Oxygen concentration of mixed venous blood.This allows us to sayCO = VO2/{Ca – Cv}and hence calculate cardiac output.Note that (Ca – Cv) is also known as the arteriovenous oxygen difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as...

    Correct

    • Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis on its own does not lead to left ventricular dilatation and hence a displaced apex beat. Thus a displaced apex beat is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other options occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine, histamine, bradykinin, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and shear stress on the endothelial cells causing the release of NO. NO is formed from arginine and causes vasodilatation of the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Vitamin B12 is transported from the enterocytes to the bone marrow by which...

    Correct

    • Vitamin B12 is transported from the enterocytes to the bone marrow by which factor?

      Your Answer: Transcobalamin II (TC IIi)

      Explanation:

      B12 must be attached to IF for it to be efficiently absorbed, as receptors on the enterocytes in the terminal ileum of the small bowel only recognize the B12-IF complex. Once the IF/B12 complex is recognized by specialized ileal receptors, it is transported into the portal circulation. The vitamin is then transferred to transcobalamin II (TC-II/B12), which serves as the plasma transporter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Dicrotic notch is produced by which valves? ...

    Correct

    • Dicrotic notch is produced by which valves?

      Your Answer: Aortic

      Explanation:

      The graph of aortic pressure throughout the cardiac cycle displays a small dip (the incisure or dicrotic notch) which coincides with the aortic valve closure. The dip in the graph is immediately followed by a brief rise (the dicrotic wave) then gradual decline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion...

    Correct

    • Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion of fat begin in a normal human being?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The enzyme lipase which is responsible for digestion of fat is secreted by the exocrine pancreas in the 2nd part of the duodenum at the point where the pancreatic duct opens. It opens together with the common bile duct which contains bile that emulsify fat aiding in digestion. The oesophagus, stomach and mouth do not contain enzymes related to fat digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Cholinergic vagal supply to the SA and AV nodes results in slowing of...

    Incorrect

    • Cholinergic vagal supply to the SA and AV nodes results in slowing of the heart rate via:

      Your Answer: M1 muscarinic receptors

      Correct Answer: M2 muscarinic receptors

      Explanation:

      M2 muscarinic receptors are the receptors for the parasympathetic system to the SA and the AV node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Correct

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - According to Starling's law of the heart: ...

    Correct

    • According to Starling's law of the heart:

      Your Answer: The extent of the preload is proportional to the end-diastolic volume

      Explanation:

      Frank starlings law describes that an increase in the venous return or the end diastolic volume will cause an increase in the stroke volume/ preload and also cardiac output. It stems from the fact that increased venous return will increase the stretch on the ventricular muscle fibers. The sarcomere will stretch a considerable length that is needed for maximum contraction and the development of tension in the muscle fiber. The greater the venous return the greater the cardiac output. This relationship is directly proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time? ...

    Correct

    • What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:...

    Correct

    • Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:

      Your Answer: Microfold cells (m cells) of the intestine

      Explanation:

      M cells are specialized epithelial cells. They have a high capacity of transcytosis of microorganisms and macromolecules. They rapidly uptake antigens and present them to immune cells associated with the gut. In contrast to absorptive enterocytes, M cells do not exert direct defence mechanisms to antigens and pathogens in the intestinal cavity. Crypts of Lieberkühn are located mainly in the small intestine and large intestine and the main function is to replenish epithelial cells and to secrete intestinal enzymatic juice as well as mucous. Brunner’s glands empty into intestinal glands and their main function is to secrete mucin and to form a protective mucus layer on the duodenal epithelial cells to protect it from acidic chyme coming from the stomach. Islets of Langerhans are located in the pancreas and secrets insulin mainly. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue plays a role in inducing immune response after presentation of antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains: ...

    Correct

    • The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains:

      Your Answer: Zn and Cu

      Explanation:

      The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains zinc and copper

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor? ...

    Correct

    • The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor?

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      The tissue factor pathway (extrinsic) begins following damage to the blood vessel. FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I?

      Your Answer: Insulinoma

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1 syndrome) or Wermer’s syndrome is part of a group of disorders, the multiple endocrine neoplasias, that affect the endocrine system through development of neoplastic lesions in the ‘three P’s’:Parathyroid (>90%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasiaPituitary (15-42%)Pancreas (60-70%, e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In the body what are fatty acids broken down to? ...

    Correct

    • In the body what are fatty acids broken down to?

      Your Answer: Acetyl Co A

      Explanation:

      Fatty acids are broken down into acetyl Co A. The acetyl-CoA produced by beta oxidation enters the citric acid cycle in the mitochondrion by combining with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:

      Your Answer: CN IX

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic presynaptic nerve fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) synapse in the otic ganglion and the postsynaptic parasympathetic nerve fibers pass to the parotid gland via the auriculotemporal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Correct

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Indicator dilution method

      Explanation:

      There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?...

    Correct

    • With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?

      Your Answer: Periarteriolar lymphoid sheets - T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The spleen consists of:Red pulp – responsible for mechanical filtration of red blood cells. Red pulp contains sinusoids, which are filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers and a marginal zoneWhite pulp – responsible for active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways. Composed of nodules, called Malpighian corpuscles. These are composed of: lymphoid follicles, rich in B-lymphocytes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths, rich in T-lymphocytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors...

    Correct

    • Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors respectively: M3 , H2 , CCK-B, to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine, histamine , gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution? ...

    Correct

    • Which law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution?

      Your Answer: Fick’s law

      Explanation:

      Fick’s law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution. Fick’s law states that: Jx = -D A (ΔC / Δx) Where: Jx = The amount of substance transferred per unit time D = Diffusion coefficient of that particular substance A = Surface area over which diffusion occurs ΔC = Concentration difference across the membrane Δx = Distance over which diffusion occurs The negative sign reflects movement down the concentration gradient

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following forms one of the characteristic and functional cells making...

    Correct

    • Which of the following forms one of the characteristic and functional cells making up the anterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Corticotrope

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary, also known as adenohypophysis or pars anterior contains the following types of cells: – acidophil cells: somatotroph cells, which produce growth hormone; and lactotrophs, which produce prolactin- basophil cells: corticotropes, which produce adrenocorticotropic hormone; thyrotropes, which produce thyroid stimulating hormone; and – gonadotrophs, which produce luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline? ...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline?

      Your Answer: Ornithine transcarbamoylase

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate is converted to citrulline by ornithine transcarbamoylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Where is the myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus) located in the GIT? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus) located in the GIT?

      Your Answer: Between the outer longitudinal and middle circular muscle layers.

      Explanation:

      A part of the enteric nervous system, the myenteric plexus exists between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa in the gastrointestinal tract. It is found in the muscles of the oesophagus, stomach, and intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - In which cell would you find a Nissl body? ...

    Correct

    • In which cell would you find a Nissl body?

      Your Answer: Bipolar neuron

      Explanation:

      Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery...

    Correct

    • In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery which supplies the?

      Your Answer: Posterior interventricular artery

      Explanation:

      Dominance of the coronary artery system is defined by the artery that gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery. Dominance of the right coronary artery is more common (68%). It gives rise to the large posterior interventricular branch which goes down to the apex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Compact/cortical bone makes up ...

    Correct

    • Compact/cortical bone makes up

      Your Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Explanation:

      Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The function of the Golgi apparatus is ...

    Correct

    • The function of the Golgi apparatus is

      Your Answer: Maturation of peptides secreted by the rER into functional proteins by glycosylation

      Explanation:

      Steroidogenesis is a multi-step process that occurs in two organelles, the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and the mitochondrion. The Golgi apparatus is a major collection and dispatch station of protein products received from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proteins synthesized in the ER are packaged into vesicles, which then fuse with the Golgi apparatus. The majority of proteins synthesized in the rough ER undergo glycosylation which occurs in the Golgi apparatus. Glycosylation mainly refers in particular to the enzymatic process that attaches glycans to proteins, lipids, or other organic molecules. These cargo proteins are modified and destined for secretion via exocytosis or for use in the cell. The Golgi apparatus is also involved in lipid transport and lysosome formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum… ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum…

      Your Answer: All options are correct

      Explanation:

      Cerebrocerebellum is comprised of two lateral regions, the cerebellar hemispheres and communicates with the cerebral cortex. It is principally responsible for controlling coordination of movement. Three fiber bundles carry the input and output of the cerebellum. There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      10.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (11/12) 92%
Physiology (39/40) 98%
Haematology (6/6) 100%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Cell Biology (6/6) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal (6/6) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Passmed