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  • Question 1 - Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: You can catch chickenpox from a patient with shingles.

      Explanation:

      After primary infection, VZV remains latent in sensory ganglia and in about 20% of patients will reactivate resulting in shingles, a painful vesicular rash in the related dermatome. Shingles usually affects older people and the immunocompromised. Shingles lesions are infectious to non-immune individuals who are at risk of developing chickenpox. Shingles can not be contracted directly from chickenpox, or from other cases of shingles. Shingles is treated with systemic antiviral treatment to reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications, and reduce viral shedding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - When the pulmonary artery is completely blocked, what is the ventilation over perfusion...

    Incorrect

    • When the pulmonary artery is completely blocked, what is the ventilation over perfusion ratio for the area that it supplies?

      Your Answer: Zero

      Correct Answer: Infinity

      Explanation:

      The ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q ratio) is a ratio used to assess the efficiency and adequacy of the matching ventilation and perfusion.

      A pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs. When a large pulmonary embolus completed blocked a pulmonary artery the alveoli were ventilated but not perfused at all, then the V/Q ratio would be infinity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following best describes an intention to treat analysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes an intention to treat analysis:

      Your Answer: All patients are included in the analysis according to the group into which they were randomised only if they remain in the study.

      Correct Answer: All patients are included in the analysis according to the group into which they were randomised even if they are withdrawn from the study.

      Explanation:

      An intention to treat (ITT) analysis is one in which all patients are included in the analysis, classified according to the group into which they were randomised, even if they were withdrawn from the study and did not actually receive the treatment, did not comply with treatment or drop-out. Intention to treat analysis is a more reliable estimate of true treatment effectiveness by replicating what happens in the ‘real world’ (e.g. noncompliance and protocol violations commonly affect therapies).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Study Methodology
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate...

    Correct

    • The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate for a patient who is in a lot of pain. You discover that you are unable to prescribe it due to a contra-indication after evaluating the patient.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Age under 12 years

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a mild opiate that can be used to treat mild to moderate pain when other pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen have failed. It can also be used to treat diarrhoea and coughs that are dry or painful.

      The use of all opioids is contraindicated for the following reasons:
      Respiratory depression (acute)
      Patients who are comatose
      Head injury (opioid analgesics impair pupillary responses, which are crucial for neurological evaluation)
      Intracranial pressure has risen (opioid analgesics interfere with pupillary responses vital for neurological assessment)
      There’s a chance you’ll get paralytic ileus.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Because of the significant risk of respiratory side effects in children under the age of 12, it is not recommended for children under the age of 12.

      Patients of any age who have been identified as ultra-rapid codeine metabolizers (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolizers)

      Because codeine can pass through breast milk to the baby and because mothers’ ability to metabolise codeine varies greatly, it is especially dangerous in breastfeeding mothers.

      If other painkillers, such as paracetamol or ibuprofen, fail to relieve acute moderate pain in children over the age of 12, codeine should be used. In children with obstructive sleep apnoea who received codeine after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, a significant risk of serious and life-threatening adverse reactions has been identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      149.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. The nerve that innervates peroneus tertius is damaged as a consequence of his injuries.
      Peroneus tertius receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+ ions.

      Explanation:

      CO2generated in the tissues and water combine to form carbonic acid which readily dissociates to form HCO3-and H+. The first part of this reaction is very slow in plasma, but is accelerated dramatically by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase present in red blood cells. Bicarbonate is therefore formed preferentially in red cells, from which it freely diffuses down its concentration gradient into plasma where it is transported to the lungs. The red cell membrane is impermeable to H+ions which remain in the cell. To maintain electroneutrality, Cl-ions diffuse into the cell to replace HCO3-, an effect known as the chloride shift. Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+, allowing the reaction to continue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Explanation:

      At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the submandibular gland (65%) but when stimulated, the parotid glands produce a higher proportion of the total saliva production (50%) than at rest. Saliva is alkaline and hypotonic to plasma. The predominant digestive enzymes in saliva are alpha-amylase and lingual lipase; lingual lipase is not functionally very important, but alpha-amylase is important for the initiation of starch digestion. Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system e.g. by sleep, dehydration, anticholinergic drugs and fear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Discontinuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Incorrect

    • Discontinuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reticuloendothelial system

      Explanation:

      Discontinuous capillaries, found in the reticuloendothelial system (bone marrow, liver and spleen), have large gaps between endothelial cells and are permeable to red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass that protrudes when standing. The patient notes that it is reducible when lying down. On physical examination, there is presence of a cough impulse. The initial assessment is hernia. Further investigation reveals that the mass lies lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.

      Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.

      Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Na+/K+ATPase pump? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Na+/K+ATPase pump?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Na + /K + ATPase pump moves 3 Na + ions into the cell for every 2 K + ions out.

      Explanation:

      In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. The Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Incorrect

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester.

      The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:
      1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance
      2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility
      – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available
      – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possible

      The first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Amoxicillin
      500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)
      2. Cefalexin
      500 mg BD for seven days
      Alternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If less than one, indicates that the information increases the likelihood of the suspected diagnosis

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.

      Cushing's syndrome is most commonly caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.

      Cushing’s syndrome has several endogenous sources, including:
      Cushing’s disease is caused by a pituitary adenoma.
      Adrenal adenoma Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell cancer of the lung
      Adrenal carcinoma is a cancer of the adrenal gland.
      Hyperplasia of the adrenal glands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated episodes of abdominal pain and the passage of dark coloured urine every morning. He also reports increasing fatigue over the past several months. On examination, there are raised, painful red nodules over the skin of the back. Laboratory workup shows haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

      Which one of the following disorders is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is an acquired genetic disorder that causes a decrease in red blood cells due to a membrane defect that allows increased complement binding to RBCs, causing haemolysis. Patients complain of dark-coloured urine first in the morning due to haemoglobinuria secondary to lysis of red blood cells overnight.

      Thrombosis occurs, which affects hepatic, abdominal, cerebral and subdermal veins. Thrombosis of hepatic veins can lead to Budd-Chiari syndrome, thrombosis of subdermal veins can lead to painful nodules on the skin, and thrombosis of cerebral vessels can lead to stroke. The presence of dark urine in the morning only and at no other time differentiates this condition from other conditions.

      Multiple myeloma would present with bone pain, signs of radiculopathy if there were nerve root compression and a history of repeated infections.

      Patients with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma would complain of enlarged lymph nodes, fatigue, fever, weight loss and a history of repeated infections.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia presents more commonly in children than in adults. The patient would complain of bone pain, and on examination, there would be hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Insulin is produced by which of the following pancreatic cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Insulin is produced by which of the following pancreatic cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β cells

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding carbohydrate, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbohydrate, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most dietary carbohydrate is in the form of disaccharides.

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrates are the main energy source of most diets. They provide 17 kJ (4 kcal) of energy per gram. Most dietary carbohydrate is in the form of polysaccharides. The principal ingested polysaccharides are starch which is derived from plant sources and glycogen which is derived from animal sources. Dietary fibre consists of indigestible carbohydrate (found in plant foods) such as cellulose, lignin and pectin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the partial pressure of gases, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the partial pressure of gases, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At high altitude, the oxygen fraction is reduced.

      Explanation:

      At altitude, the oxygen fraction is unaltered but the barometric pressure and thus partial pressure of oxygen is reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is administered as part of routine antenatal care for rhesus-negative mothers.

      Explanation:

      In all non-sensitised pregnant women who are RhD-negative, it is recommended that routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis is offered. Even if there is previous anti-D prophylaxis, use of routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis should be given for a sensitising event early in the same pregnancy. Postpartum anti-D prophylaxis should also be given even if there has been previous routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis or antenatal anti-D prophylaxis for a sensitising event in the same pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting are seen on examination, and patient denies presence of itching of the eye. All his observations are normal, he has no fever and is otherwise well.

      Which of these is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of red eye is conjunctivitis. It is caused by inflammation of the conjunctiva which can be infective or allergic and accounts for about 35% of all eye problems presenting to general practice.

      Viral conjunctivitis is commonly caused by adenoviruses and it is the most common infectious conjunctivitis.

      The common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis are Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Staphylococcus aureus.

      The clinical features of infective conjunctivitis include:
      Acute onset of conjunctival erythema
      Feeling ‘grittiness’, ‘foreign body’ or ‘burning’ sensation in the eye.
      Watering and discharge which may cause transient blurring of vision

      The discharge for viral conjunctivitis is less than that of bacterial conjunctivitis and usually watery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Immunoglobulins And Vaccines (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Passmed