-
Question 1
Correct
-
In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?
Your Answer: Ethmoidal air cells
Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus
Explanation:The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She seems lethargic and has a blood glucose of 24 mmol/l. Which of the following defines diabetes, according to the World Health Organization?
Your Answer: Two fasting glucose levels > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms
Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms
Explanation:WHO states that diabetes can be diagnosed from a single fasting glucose of > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms or a glucose level of > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after a glucose load. Two fasting glucose levels of > 7.0 mmol/l on separate occasions can also fit the diagnosis in the absence of characteristic symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Toe walking is NOT a feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Prematurity
Correct Answer: Waardenburg syndrome
Explanation:Toe walking refers to a pattern of walking in which the infants walk on the balls of their feet, without putting the heel of the feet on the ground. It is considered normal under the age of 2 years, but if it continues beyond that, it can signify some underlying pathology. The diseases that can be associated with toe walking include unilateral hip dislocation, Spinal tumours, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, prematurity, and cerebral palsy. Waardenburg’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder, causing sensorineural deafness, and heterochromatic irises. Toe walking is not a feature.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
According to NICE guidelines, which of the following should be avoided in breastfeeding women?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines:Do not offer lithium to women who are planning a pregnancy or pregnant, unless antipsychotic medication has not been effective.If antipsychotic medication has not been effective and lithium is offered to a woman who is planning a pregnancy or pregnant, ensure:the woman knows that there is a risk of fetal heart malformations when lithium is taken in the first trimester, but the size of the risk is uncertain. Lithium levels may be high in breast milk with a risk of toxicity for the baby.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant, consider stopping the drug gradually over 4 weeks if she is well. Explain to her that:stopping the medication may not remove the risk of fetal heart malformations and there is a risk of relapse, particularly in the postnatal period, if she has bipolar disorder.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant and is not well or is at high risk of relapse, consider:switching gradually to an antipsychotic or stopping lithium and restarting it in the second trimester (if the woman is not planning to breastfeed and her symptoms have responded better to lithium than to other drugs in the past) or continuing with lithium if she is at high risk of relapse and an antipsychotic is unlikely to be effective. If a woman continues taking lithium during pregnancy:- check plasma lithium levels every 4 weeks, then weekly from the 36th week. Adjust the dose to keep plasma lithium levels in the woman’s therapeutic range- ensure the woman maintains an adequate fluid balance- ensure the woman gives birth in the hospital- ensure monitoring by the obstetric team when labour starts, including checking plasma lithium levels and fluid balance because of the risk of dehydration and lithium toxicity- stop lithium during labour and check plasma lithium levels 12 hours after her last dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which of the following facts and figures is true regarding vitamin A?
Your Answer: Children with measles should receive additional vitamin A supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin A is a fat-soluble compound occurring in various forms. The RDA for 0-12 months old babies is 400-600micrograms/day. Most of the vitamin A is stored in the liver, making animal liver an excellent source of vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the deposits of keratin in the conjunctiva, known as Bitot’s spots, keratomalacia, night blindness, and anaemia.Vitamin A toxicity or excess is characterized by hyperkeratosis, hypothyroidism, hypo/hyperpigmentation, etc.According to WHO guidelines, children under two years of age who develop measles should be given two additional doses of vitamin A supplementation 24 hours apart, which is necessary for preventing eye damage, blindness, and reducing mortality by 50%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Adrenaline nebulizer
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 17 year old patient, who reports to the clinic following an apparent transient ischaemic attack, is demonstrated to have a small right homonymous hemianopia with partial sparing of central vision.Where is the lesion most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Temporal cortex
Correct Answer: Occipital cortex
Explanation:The most common cause of homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a stroke. In this condition there is bitemporal field loss. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm, in the brain parenchyma are most likely to be the cause of the HH. In this case the retention of central vision indicates that the area of injury may be in the occipital cortex, sparing the occipital pole. The occipital pole receives sensory fibres from the macular, and has a dual blood supply protecting it from total infarction. Lesions of the optic tract can be ruled out as these cause total vision loss in the affected eye. Parietal or temporal nerve lesions cause affect the inferior and superior parts of the visual field respectively causing homonymous quadrantinopias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?
Your Answer: Left middle zone
Correct Answer: Right upper zone
Explanation:The azygos lobe is usually well seen on the chest radiograph, where it is limited by the azygos fissure, a fine, convex (relative to the mediastinum) line that crosses the apex of the right lung.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent chest infections. CXR showed an absent thymic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Explanation:DiGeorge syndrome usually presents at a young age with abnormal faces. Chest x-ray is characterised by an absent thymic shadow and recurrent infections due to an abnormal T-cell mediated immune response. Sometimes it presents by convulsions of the new-born due to hypocalcaemia as a result of a malfunctioning parathyroid gland and low levels of PTH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents, who claimed that the baby had come into close contact with another child with measles two days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: She should receive measles immunoglobulin now
Correct Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccination now
Explanation:People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive immunoglobulin. Intramuscular immunoglobulin should be given to all infants younger than 12 months of age who have been exposed to measles. For infants aged 6 through 11 months, MMR vaccine can be given in place of IG, if administered within 72 hours of exposure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He was born at 34 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery and was discharged 4 weeks ago. He is not on any regular medication. Parents said that he brings up small volumes of milk after feeds. This happens approximately twice a day. Observations are all within normal range and examination is unremarkable.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux occurs in almost all infants, manifesting as wet burps after feeding. The spit-ups appear effortless and not particularly forceful.Infants in whom reflux has caused GERD have additional symptoms, such as irritability, feeding refusal, and/or respiratory symptoms such as chronic recurrent coughing or wheezing and sometimes stridor. Much less commonly, infants have intermittent apnoea or episodes of arching the back and turning the head to one side (Sandifer syndrome). Infants may fail to gain weight appropriately or, less often, lose weight.Incidence of gastroesophageal reflux increases between 2 months and 6 months of age (likely due to an increased volume of liquid at each feeding) and then starts to decrease after 7 months. Gastroesophageal reflux resolves in about 85% of infants by 12 months and in 95% by 18 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child underwent an emergency splenectomy following trauma. After full recovery he is dismissed from the hospital and returns home. On re-examination, eight weeks later, the GP performs a full blood count with a film. What would you expect to see?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation:Howell-Jolly bodies are often seen in post-splenectomy cases, together with Pappenheimer bodies, target cells and irregular contracted red blood cells. The loss of splenic tissue results in the inability to readily remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from the circulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus?
Your Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis
Explanation:Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, is best known as a cause of postpartum infection and as the most common cause of neonatal sepsis. The GBS organism colonizes the vagina, GI tract, and the upper respiratory tract of healthy humans. GBS infection is almost always associated with underlying abnormalities. In elderly persons aged 70 years or older, GBS infection is strongly linked with congestive heart failure and being bedridden.Penicillin remains the drug of choice for group B streptococcal infection but resistance may occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Out-toeing
Explanation:Gait variations in children are usually physiologically normal and only become a cause of concern when they persist or are associated with pain or other medical symptoms. Genu varus, also known as knock knees causes an outward rotation of the leg, leading the toes pointing outwards. The condition usually resolves by the age of 18 months. In comparison, in- toeing occurs with genu varus. Metatarsus adductus is also associated with an inward pointing of the toes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both arms. Ataxia and dysarthria are also observed along with occasional involuntary grimacing of the face. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Drug withdrawal symptoms after a period of substance abuse can lead to a range of symptoms. Amphetamines are known to cause hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability, as well as vivid dreams as a result of withdrawal. Similar symptoms are found in cocaine withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal presents with symptoms such as insomnia, tremulousness and delirium. Ecstasy withdrawal includes irritation, mood swings, fatigue and insomnia. Heroin withdrawal presents with symptoms which include dilated pupils, insomnia, abdominal cramps and muscle aches. Withdrawal from prolonged cannabis use can cause depression, anxiety restlessness and insomnia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20 weeks gestation, which of the following may be an associated adverse condition in the neonate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Treatment of depression is an important component of maternal and neonatal health. The use of SSRIs and antidepressants in the first trimester are unlikely to carry any congenital risks. However the use of the antidepressants closer to delivery may result in some respiratory, motor, gastrointestinal and central nervous system problems, with the most concerning of these being persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. Other conditions such as cleft palate, jaundice, neural tube defects or floppy baby syndrome have not been shown to occur with SSRI use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T cells
Explanation:Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A patient was diagnosed with a fast-growing pituitary adenoma. Magnetic resonance image (MRI) scanning reveals a suprasellar extension. Which structure is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerve II (CN II or optic nerve) runs along the midline of the ventral surface of the brain and conveys visual information from the retina of each eye to the corresponding region of the primary visual cortex. The right half of the visual field of both eyes is processed by the left half of the retina, while the right half of the retina processes the left half of the visual field. These retinal ganglion cells project myelinated axons, carrying CN II sensory afferent fibres, through the optic chiasm, where optic nerve fibres from the nasal half of each retina decussate to the contralateral side of the brain for processing. After passing through the optic chiasm, the optic nerve becomes the optic tract that synapses to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and subsequently projects optic radiations to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occipital lobe. The optic tract also projects to the superior colliculus, pretectal nuclei, and suprachiasmatic nuclei. This part of the optic pathway serves the important light reflex.Due to the anatomical location of the optic chiasm superior to the pituitary gland, a suprasellar extension of a pituitary macroadenoma will lead to compression of the optic nerve fibres decussating at the optic chiasm. Impingement of these nerves prevents visual information from the temporal visual fields of each eye from reaching the processing centres in the brain, leading to peripheral vision loss
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 10-month-old boy was brought to the emergency department with bilateral watery discharge from both eyes with occasional mucoid discharge. The presentation is highly suggestive of a nasolacrimal duct dysfunction.Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice to be given to the boy's parents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance, as most infants tend to resolve spontaneously
Explanation:The most appropriate management would be to reassure the parents, as nasolacrimal duct dysfunction in most infants tends to resolve spontaneously.Note:Nasolacrimal duct blockage occurs in up to 5% of new-borns. 90% of these babies spontaneously resolve in the first year of life. They do not require urgent ophthalmological review, as often advice and reassurance for parents suffice for up to the age of 18 months old or so. A lump can often be seen in the nasolacrimal region following the accumulation of mucous. This does not need to be treated with antibiotics unless there are signs of acute infection.Other options:- The child does not require urgent ophthalmology review as there are no signs of severe infection. Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is a common non-worrying sign.- A course of topical antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- A course of topical and oral antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical and oral antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- Reassurance is necessary. However, the advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect. Reassurance, but include advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect as 90% of infants that have these symptoms and signs resolve within the first year of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be performed before the study commences
Explanation:Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the single most serious side effect associated with IV Lorazepam?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amnesia
Explanation:The most serious side effects of IV Lorazepam include hallucinations, agitation, confusion, amnesia and muscle weakness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following skills would a 1-year-old girl be able to demonstrate, assuming that her developmental growth is normal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Understanding of object permanence
Explanation:Among the options provided, a 1-year-old child will be able to understand object permanence e.g. understands that objects continue to exist even when they can’t be seen, e.g. looking for a fallen toy.At the age of 1 year, children should have developed an accurate pincer grip and be able to see and co-ordinate and manipulate fairly small objects such as a raisin.Gross motor development varies, but the average 1-year-old should be able to stand and cruise around furniture or walk with their hands held but not necessarily walk unaided.Drinking from a cup will become established at around 15 months and scribbling at 18 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with no murmurs, 3 cm liver edge, and poor femoral pulses. She is acidotic with elevated lactate. Mum did not attend the antenatal screening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta may be defined as a constricted aortic segment that comprises localized medial thickening, with some infolding of the medial and superimposed neointimal tissue.The presence of associated defects and aortic arch anomalies, the extent of patency of the ductus arteriosus, the rapidity of the process of closure of the ductus arteriosus, and the level of pulmonary vascular resistance determine the timing of clinical presentation and the severity of symptoms. Young patients may present in the first few weeks of life with poor feeding, tachypnoea, and lethargy and progress to overt CHF and shock. These patients may have appeared well before hospital discharge, and deterioration coincides with closure of the patent ductus arteriosus. Presentation may be abrupt and acute with ductal closure.Neonates may be found to have tachypnoea, tachycardia, and increased work of breathing and may even be moribund with shock. Keys to the diagnosis include blood pressure (BP) discrepancies between the upper and lower extremities and reduced or absent lower extremity pulses to palpation. However, when the infant is in severe heart failure, all pulses are diminished.The murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta may be nonspecific yet is usually a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His parents gave a recent history of nasal trauma. On examination he was febrile and his nasal bones were straight. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Septal abscess
Explanation:History of fever is suggestive of an infective focus. A straight nasal bones excludes a nasal bone fracture. A nasal septal abscess is defined as a collection of pus between the cartilage or bony septum and it is an uncommon disease which should be suspected in a patient with acute onset of nasal obstruction and recent history of nasal trauma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty
Explanation:Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)