00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, according to the guidelines?

      Your Answer: Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD)

      Explanation:

      The preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, according to the guidelines is Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD). This regimen is recommended in the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines because it has been shown to be effective in suppressing HIV viral load, is well-tolerated by patients, and is a fixed-dose combination which can help improve adherence to treatment.

      Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate is a potent antiretroviral drug that inhibits the replication of HIV, while Lamivudine and Dolutegravir are also effective in controlling the virus. The combination of these three drugs in a single pill simplifies the treatment regimen for patients, making it easier for them to take their medication consistently.

      Additionally, TLD has been found to have a favorable safety profile, with fewer side effects compared to some other ART regimens. This is particularly important for pregnant and breastfeeding women, as the safety of the medication for both the mother and the baby is a key consideration in choosing an ART regimen.

      Overall, Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD) is recommended as the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, due to its efficacy, tolerability, and simplicity of dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is recommended for ARV drug administration if a patient cannot swallow whole...

    Incorrect

    • What is recommended for ARV drug administration if a patient cannot swallow whole tablets?

      Your Answer: Forcing the patient to swallow whole tablets regardless of their ability.

      Correct Answer: Crushing, splitting, or opening capsules/tablets when necessary and as specified for certain drugs.

      Explanation:

      It is important for patients to adhere to their ARV drug regimen in order to effectively manage their HIV infection. However, some patients may have difficulty swallowing whole tablets, which can make it challenging for them to take their medication as prescribed. In such cases, it is recommended to crush, split, or open capsules/tablets as necessary and as specified for certain drugs.

      Forcing the patient to swallow whole tablets regardless of their ability can lead to non-adherence and potentially compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. Discontinuing the ARV medication or switching to an entirely new regimen may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by modifying the administration of the medication.

      The guidelines provide specific advice on whether ARV tablets/capsules can be split, crushed, or opened if a patient is unable to swallow them whole. This allows healthcare providers to ensure that patients can continue their treatment while addressing any difficulties they may have with swallowing whole tablets. By following these recommendations, patients can maintain adherence to their ARV drug regimen and effectively manage their HIV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which cells are primarily targeted and destroyed by HIV, leading to immunodeficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Which cells are primarily targeted and destroyed by HIV, leading to immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: CD4+ lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      HIV primarily targets and destroys CD4+ lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system. CD4+ lymphocytes are responsible for coordinating the body’s immune response to infections and diseases. When HIV infects these cells, it replicates inside them and eventually leads to their destruction. As the number of CD4+ lymphocytes decreases, the body becomes more susceptible to infections and is unable to mount an effective immune response.

      The destruction of CD4+ lymphocytes by HIV ultimately leads to immunodeficiency, where the body’s immune system is weakened and unable to effectively fight off infections. This is why individuals with HIV are at a higher risk of developing opportunistic infections and certain types of cancers. By targeting and destroying CD4+ lymphocytes, HIV undermines the body’s ability to protect itself, resulting in the development of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in untreated individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What action should be taken if a pregnant woman with TB symptoms appears...

    Incorrect

    • What action should be taken if a pregnant woman with TB symptoms appears very ill with certain signs?

      Your Answer: Start TB treatment immediately

      Correct Answer: Defer ART until TB is excluded/diagnosed

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with TB symptoms who appear very ill should not start ART until TB is excluded or diagnosed because they may be at a higher risk of developing immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). IRIS is a condition where the immune system starts to recover and responds to TB antigens, causing an exaggerated inflammatory response that can worsen symptoms and lead to complications.

      Initiating TB treatment immediately is important to address the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the disease. Once TB is excluded or diagnosed, appropriate treatment can be started, and then ART can be initiated safely. Referring the woman to a TB specialist can also ensure that she receives the necessary care and monitoring throughout her treatment.

      It is crucial to prioritize the management of TB in pregnant women to protect both the mother and the unborn child. By following the recommended guidelines and protocols, healthcare providers can ensure the best possible outcomes for pregnant women with TB symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When managing patients on TLD (Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir) who have an unsuppressed viral...

    Correct

    • When managing patients on TLD (Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir) who have an unsuppressed viral load (VL ≥ 50 c/ml), what immediate intervention is recommended?

      Your Answer: Implementing interventions to re-suppress the viral load, including possible Enhanced Adherence Support.

      Explanation:

      When managing patients on TLD with an unsuppressed viral load (VL ≥ 50 c/ml), it is important to address the issue promptly to prevent further viral replication and potential development of drug resistance. Switching to a third-line regimen may be necessary if the current regimen is no longer effective, but this should be done after assessing the patient’s resistance profile through a resistance test.

      Performing a resistance test is recommended to determine if the unsuppressed viral load is due to drug resistance, which would guide the selection of a new regimen. Increasing the dose of ART medication or temporarily discontinuing ART treatment are not recommended interventions for addressing an unsuppressed viral load.

      The immediate intervention recommended for patients on TLD with an unsuppressed viral load is implementing interventions to re-suppress the viral load, which may include Enhanced Adherence Support. This involves working closely with the patient to identify and address barriers to adherence, such as pill burden, side effects, or psychosocial factors, in order to improve medication adherence and achieve viral suppression. Enhanced Adherence Support may include counseling, reminder systems, pill organizers, or other strategies to help the patient adhere to their medication regimen effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the acceptable level of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) for TDF...

    Correct

    • What is the acceptable level of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) for TDF use in adults and adolescents?

      Your Answer: > 50 mL/min/1.73m2

      Explanation:

      The estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) is a measure of how well the kidneys are functioning. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is a medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B, but it can be harmful to the kidneys if they are not functioning properly. Therefore, it is important to monitor a patient’s eGFR before starting TDF therapy.

      An eGFR using the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation of > 50 mL/min/1.73m2 is considered an acceptable level for TDF use in adults and adolescents. This level indicates that the kidneys are functioning well enough to safely metabolize and excrete the medication without causing harm.

      The other options provided in the question, such as > 80 mL/min/1.73 m2, < 10 and < 16 years of age, < 85 μmol/L, and > 120 IU/L, are not directly related to the acceptable eGFR level for TDF use. It is important to follow the specific guidelines and recommendations for eGFR levels when considering TDF therapy to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the range of viral load (VL) considered for clients with repeat...

    Incorrect

    • What is the range of viral load (VL) considered for clients with repeat VL testing?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: 50 999 c/mL

      Explanation:

      Repeat viral load testing is an important aspect of monitoring HIV treatment effectiveness in clients. The range of viral load considered for clients with repeat testing helps healthcare providers determine the level of viral replication in the body and assess the response to antiretroviral therapy.

      A viral load of < 10 c/mL is considered undetectable and indicates successful suppression of the virus. This is the ideal outcome for clients on HIV treatment. A viral load of 10-49 c/mL is still considered low and may not necessarily indicate treatment failure, but it does warrant closer monitoring. A viral load of 50-999 c/mL falls within the range of persistent low-grade viremia. This level of viral replication may indicate suboptimal adherence to treatment or the development of drug resistance. Clients in this range require careful monitoring and potential interventions to address any issues that may be affecting treatment efficacy. A viral load of ≥ 1000 c/mL is considered high and indicates treatment failure. This level of viral replication may lead to disease progression and the development of complications. Clients with a viral load in this range may need to switch to a different antiretroviral regimen to achieve viral suppression. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 50-999 c/mL, as clients falling within this range on repeat viral load testing are categorized as having persistent low-grade viremia and require closer monitoring and potential interventions to optimize treatment adherence and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What are the signs of secondary syphilis, and when do they typically occur...

    Correct

    • What are the signs of secondary syphilis, and when do they typically occur after the primary ulcer?

      Your Answer: Generalized rash, flat wart-like genital lesions, mouth ulcers; occur 6-8 weeks after primary ulcer

      Explanation:

      Secondary syphilis is the second stage of syphilis infection, which occurs after the initial primary stage. The signs of secondary syphilis include a generalized rash, flat wart-like genital lesions, and mouth ulcers. These symptoms typically appear 6-8 weeks after the primary ulcer, also known as a chancre, has healed. It is important to recognize these signs and seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent further complications of syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      434.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old male presents to his doctor with severe groin pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his doctor with severe groin pain that has been increasing for the past two days. He also reports developing a fever. He lives with his wife and has no other sexual partners. He is in good health and takes tamsulosin regularly. Upon examination, the doctor notes acute tenderness and swelling in the right testis, leading to a diagnosis of epididymo-orchitis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Orchitis typically affects post-pubertal males and usually occurs 5-7 days after infection. It is important to note that the relief of pain when the testis is elevated, known as a positive Prehn’s sign, is not present in cases of testicular torsion.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is also seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV?

      Your Answer: Parenchymal T and B lymphocyte infiltration

      Correct Answer: Axonal damage

      Explanation:

      In young individuals with HIV infection, neuropathological findings such as lymphocytic leptomeningitis, perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, parenchymal T and B lymphocyte infiltration, and microglial activation are commonly observed. These findings are indicative of the inflammatory response and immune cell infiltration in the brain due to HIV infection.

      However, axonal damage is a neuropathological finding that is not specific to HIV infection and can also be seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV. Axonal damage can result from various factors such as inflammation, trauma, and hypoxia, which are common in drug users. Therefore, the presence of axonal damage in both individuals with early HIV infection and drug users without HIV suggests that this particular neuropathological finding may not be specific to HIV infection but rather a result of other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      523.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - For a term neonate from birth to less than 4 weeks of age...

    Incorrect

    • For a term neonate from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg, what is the correct ART regimen doses?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine (AZT) 6 mg/kg/dose twice daily, Lamivudine (3TC) 2 mg/kg/dose twice daily, and Nevirapine (NVP) administered as 4 mg/kg/dose twice daily.

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For term neonates from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg, the ART regimen consists of Zidovudine (AZT) 4 mg/kg/dose twice daily, Lamivudine (3TC) 2 mg/kg/dose twice daily, and Nevirapine (NVP) administered as 6 mg/kg/dose twice daily. These specific dosages are tailored to the neonate’s weight and age to effectively manage HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      214.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia,...

    Correct

    • An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the 8-week-old baby with bilateral cataracts, thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus, and hepatosplenomegaly is congenital rubella syndrome. This is because the clinical presentation matches the classic triad of symptoms associated with congenital rubella syndrome, which includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities such as cataracts, and congenital heart disease like a patent ductus arteriosus. Other common findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities, hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice. Therefore, the most likely cause of the baby’s symptoms is rubella infection during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      282.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What should be done if a client presents without a transfer letter and...

    Incorrect

    • What should be done if a client presents without a transfer letter and reports running out of treatment?

      Your Answer: Provide a full month's supply of medication and advise the client to return with a transfer letter

      Correct Answer: Contact the previous facility to verify the client's treatment history

      Explanation:

      When a client presents without a transfer letter and reports running out of treatment, it is important to verify their treatment history with the previous facility. This is crucial for ensuring that the client receives appropriate and continuous care, as well as for understanding their current medication regimen and any potential risks or concerns.

      Refusing to provide medication until a transfer letter is obtained may leave the client without necessary treatment and could potentially worsen their condition. Providing a full month’s supply of medication without verifying the treatment history may not be in the best interest of the client, as it could lead to inappropriate medication management.

      Referring the client to another facility for treatment may be an option, but it is important to first verify their treatment history to ensure a smooth transition of care. Discontinuing treatment until further notice may also not be ideal, as it could leave the client without necessary medication.

      Therefore, contacting the previous facility to verify the client’s treatment history is the most appropriate course of action in this situation. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the client’s treatment needs and ensures that they receive the appropriate care moving forward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      153.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Who primarily conducts ART initiation? ...

    Correct

    • Who primarily conducts ART initiation?

      Your Answer: NIMART trained nurse or doctor

      Explanation:

      ART initiation is a complex process that requires specialized training and knowledge in HIV treatment and management. NIMART (Nurse-Initiated Management of Antiretroviral Treatment) trained nurses and doctors have received specific training in initiating and managing ART for patients with HIV. They have the necessary skills to assess a patient’s eligibility for ART, prescribe the appropriate medications, monitor treatment progress, and manage any potential side effects or complications.

      General physicians, community health workers, pharmacists, and social workers may also play important roles in supporting patients throughout their HIV treatment journey, but the primary responsibility for ART initiation typically falls on NIMART trained nurses or doctors. Their specialized training and expertise make them well-equipped to provide high-quality care and ensure the best possible outcomes for patients starting ART.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice,...

    Correct

    • A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a common viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her baby during pregnancy. Infants born with congenital CMV infection may present with a variety of symptoms, including jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly (enlargement of the liver and spleen), petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), microcephaly (abnormally small head size), hearing loss, and seizures.

      In this case, the 3-month-old infant born to an HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures, and microcephaly. Given these symptoms, the most likely cause would be congenital cytomegalovirus infection. Other viral infections such as Epstein-Barr virus, measles, rubella, and varicella can also cause similar symptoms, but the combination of jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly is most commonly associated with CMV infection.

      It is important to diagnose and manage congenital CMV infection early to prevent long-term complications such as hearing loss and developmental delays. Testing for CMV infection can be done through blood tests, urine tests, or saliva tests. Treatment may include antiviral medications and supportive care to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships education in school.
      What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV?

      Your Answer: Breastfeeding from an infected mother

      Correct Answer: Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual

      Explanation:

      HIV is a virus that is primarily transmitted through certain bodily fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual is the most common mode of transmission because these bodily fluids can come into contact during sexual activity, allowing the virus to enter the bloodstream of an uninfected person.

      Blood transfusion from an infected donor is a rare cause of HIV transmission in countries with strict screening protocols for blood donations. Breastfeeding from an infected mother can also transmit HIV, but the risk is relatively low compared to other modes of transmission. Sharing contaminated needles with an infected individual, such as in the case of intravenous drug use, can also lead to HIV transmission.

      It is important for individuals to practice safe sex by using condoms and getting tested regularly for HIV and other sexually transmitted infections to reduce the risk of transmission. Additionally, avoiding sharing needles and ensuring blood products are screened for HIV can help prevent the spread of the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      989.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in individuals who are HIV positive?

      Your Answer: CMV (cytomegalovirus)

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is a combination of medications used to treat HIV that has been highly effective in reducing the viral load in individuals who are HIV positive. This has led to significant improvements in their immune function and overall health.

      Toxoplasmosis is an opportunistic infection caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii that can affect individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV. With the use of HAART, the immune system is strengthened and able to better fight off infections, leading to a decrease in the occurrence of toxoplasmosis in individuals who are HIV positive.

      On the other hand, conditions like PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) and lymphoma have shown a slight increase in incidence in individuals who are HIV positive and on HAART. This may be due to the fact that while HAART is effective in controlling HIV and preventing opportunistic infections like toxoplasmosis, it may not be as effective in preventing other conditions like PML and lymphoma.

      In conclusion, the use of HAART has been successful in eliminating new cases of toxoplasmosis in individuals who are HIV positive, but there may still be challenges in preventing other conditions that can arise in this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      168.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the purpose of screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and anxiety according to the text?

      Your Answer: To identify women who may need additional psychosocial support

      Explanation:

      Screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and anxiety is crucial because these conditions can have a significant impact on both the mother and the baby. Depression and anxiety can affect a woman’s ability to care for herself and her child, as well as her overall well-being. By identifying women who may be at risk for these mental health issues, healthcare providers can offer appropriate support and interventions to help them cope and manage their symptoms. This can ultimately lead to better outcomes for both the mother and the baby, as well as improve the overall experience of pregnancy and childbirth. Therefore, the purpose of screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and anxiety is to identify those who may need additional psychosocial support in order to promote their mental health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      623.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - According to the 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable...

    Correct

    • According to the 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable Infections, what documentation is recommended for managing records of HIV-positive women and their infants?

      Your Answer: The Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet

      Explanation:

      The 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable Infections emphasizes the importance of proper documentation for managing records of HIV-positive women and their infants. The recommended documents for this purpose are The Maternity Case Record for the mother and The Road to Health Booklet for the HIV-exposed infant.

      The Maternity Case Record is a comprehensive document that tracks the mother’s health care and treatment practices throughout her pregnancy, delivery, and postpartum period. It includes information on prenatal care, HIV testing and treatment, delivery details, and postpartum follow-up. By using this record, healthcare providers can ensure that the mother receives appropriate care and that her HIV status is properly managed.

      The Road to Health Booklet is a similar document designed for infants, including those who are exposed to HIV. It tracks the infant’s growth, development, and immunization status, as well as any HIV testing and treatment they may require. By using this booklet, healthcare providers can monitor the infant’s health and ensure they receive the necessary care to prevent vertical transmission of HIV.

      Overall, using these recommended documents allows for comprehensive and systematic tracking of health care and treatment practices for HIV-positive women and their infants, ultimately helping to prevent vertical transmission of HIV and improve health outcomes for both mother and child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Alopecia

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      529.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. When the virus reactivates, it can cause painful vesicular lesions in a specific dermatome area, such as the ear canal in this case. The high-grade fever may be present due to the infection.

      Varicella zoster is the virus responsible for chickenpox, not shingles. Measles is caused by the measles virus and presents with a characteristic rash, but not tender lesions in a specific area. Herpes simplex virus can cause cold sores or genital herpes, but not the specific presentation described in the question. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to various opportunistic infections, but it does not typically present with tender lesions in a specific area like herpes zoster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      145.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following best describe N. Meningitidis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describe N. Meningitidis?

      Your Answer: Gram negative cocci

      Explanation:

      Neisseria meningitidis is a gram negative bacterium that is commonly referred to as meningococcus. This bacterium is known for causing meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease, such as meningococcaemia, which is a severe and life-threatening form of sepsis.

      The bacterium is classified as a coccus because of its round shape, and more specifically, as a diplococcus because it tends to form pairs. This characteristic can be seen under a microscope when the bacteria are stained and observed.

      Among the options provided, the best description for Neisseria meningitidis would be Gram negative cocci, as it accurately reflects the shape and staining characteristics of this bacterium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      515.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which antibiotic is recommended for treating syphilis in patients with penicillin allergy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antibiotic is recommended for treating syphilis in patients with penicillin allergy?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The primary treatment for syphilis is penicillin, as it is highly effective in killing the bacteria. However, some patients may have a penicillin allergy, which can complicate treatment.

      In cases where patients have a penicillin allergy, azithromycin is recommended as an alternative treatment for syphilis. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including Treponema pallidum. It is typically given as a single dose or a short course of treatment, making it a convenient option for patients who cannot take penicillin.

      Other antibiotics, such as doxycycline, clindamycin, and vancomycin, are not typically used as first-line treatments for syphilis. Ciprofloxacin is not effective against Treponema pallidum and should not be used to treat syphilis.

      In conclusion, azithromycin is the recommended antibiotic for treating syphilis in patients with a penicillin allergy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of alternative treatment options for patients with allergies to ensure effective management of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      154.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man from Russia presents with a history of cough with blood-stained...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man from Russia presents with a history of cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Suspecting tuberculosis, you begin investigations.

      All the following statements regarding tuberculosis (TB) are true EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium cannot be Gram stained

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid use is not a risk factor for developing TB

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Corticosteroid use is indeed a risk factor for developing TB because corticosteroids suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections like TB.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not fluoresce with auramine staining, but it does fluoresce with Ziehl-Neelsen staining. Pott’s disease, a form of TB that affects the spine, most commonly affects the lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions. Cavitation, the formation of cavities or holes in the lungs, most commonly occurs at the lung apices.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis cannot be Gram stained because it has a unique cell wall composition that does not allow for the retention of the Gram stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      377.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation...

    Correct

    • An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation after a diagnosis of HIV was confirmed 2 days prior. The child was born to a mother who was diagnosed with HIV at the time of delivery, and the mother’s initial HIV RNA level was 71,357 copies/mL. The infant was prescribed a 6-week course of three-drug antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but there were concerns about the number of actual doses the infant received. Four days ago the infant had HIV RNA testing and the result was positive. Repeat HIV RNA testing of the infant 2 days ago is now also positive. Initial Laboratory studies for the infant show a CD4 count of 1,238 cells/mm3, CD4 percentage of 31%, and an HIV RNA level of 237,200 copies/mL. An HIV genotypic drug resistance test is ordered.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for the infant?

      Your Answer: Initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently

      Explanation:

      This question presents a case of an 8-week-old infant diagnosed with HIV, born to a mother with HIV. The infant had received some antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but ultimately tested positive for HIV. The initial laboratory studies show a high HIV RNA level and normal CD4 count. The question asks for the most appropriate management for the infant.

      The correct answer is to initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently. This is based on the Pediatric ART Guidelines, which recommend urgent initiation of antiretroviral therapy for all infants younger than 12 months of age with confirmed HIV infection, regardless of clinical status, CD4 count, or CD4 percentage. Early initiation of antiretroviral therapy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of HIV-related morbidity and mortality in infants with HIV.

      It is important to note that antiretroviral therapy should not be delayed while waiting for results from HIV drug resistance testing. The regimen can be adjusted later based on the results of the drug resistance testing. The urgency in starting treatment is crucial in order to provide the best possible outcome for the infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      114.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What action should be taken if an infant is asymptomatic but born to...

    Correct

    • What action should be taken if an infant is asymptomatic but born to a mother diagnosed with TB?

      Your Answer: Start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination

      Explanation:

      Infants born to mothers diagnosed with TB are at a higher risk of contracting the disease themselves, even if they are asymptomatic at birth. TB preventive therapy (TPT) is recommended for these infants to reduce the risk of developing active TB later in life. BCG vaccination is also recommended as it can provide some protection against severe forms of TB in infants.

      Initiating ART immediately is not necessary for asymptomatic infants born to mothers with TB, as they are not yet showing symptoms of the disease. Discontinuing breastfeeding is not recommended, as breastfeeding is important for the overall health and development of the infant. Conducting a sputum culture test is not necessary for asymptomatic infants, as they are not showing any signs of TB. Admitting the infant to the hospital for observation is also not necessary unless there are specific concerns about the infant’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time ...

    Incorrect

    • Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time

      Your Answer: Epidemic

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence in epidemiology refers to the proportion of a population that has a specific condition at a given point in time. This can be expressed as a fraction, percentage, or number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people. Point prevalence specifically looks at the proportion of the population with the condition at a specific point in time, while period prevalence considers the proportion of the population that has the condition at some point during a given period.

      Lifetime prevalence, on the other hand, looks at the proportion of the population that has experienced the condition at some point in their life up to the time of assessment. This includes individuals who may have had the condition in the past but no longer have it.

      In the context of infectious diseases, prevalence can help public health officials understand the burden of a disease within a population and inform strategies for prevention and control. Sero-prevalence and seroconversion specifically refer to the prevalence of antibodies in a population and the rate at which individuals develop antibodies, respectively.

      Overall, prevalence is an important measure in epidemiology that provides valuable information about the distribution of diseases and risk factors within a population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      94.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old prospective medical student is tested for hepatitis B. Her liver tests...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old prospective medical student is tested for hepatitis B. Her liver tests show alanine transaminase (ALT) 120 U/L and serology shows her to be positive for HBsAg, HBcAb and HBeAg, with a viral load of 105 genome equivalents/mL.

      A liver biopsy is reported as showing early fibrosis with evidence of moderate inflammation.

      Which of the following treatments should be offered?

      Your Answer: Pegylated interferon alfa 2a and ribavirin

      Correct Answer: Interferon alfa 2b

      Explanation:

      The correct treatment option for this patient would be Entecavir. Entecavir is a potent antiviral medication that is recommended as a first-line treatment for chronic hepatitis B. It works by inhibiting viral replication and reducing the viral load in the body. This can help to improve liver function and reduce inflammation, ultimately slowing down the progression of liver disease.

      Interferon alfa alone is not typically recommended for patients with chronic hepatitis B, as it is less effective than newer antiviral medications like Entecavir. Pegylated interferon alfa 2a and ribavirin may be used in some cases, but Entecavir is generally preferred due to its higher efficacy and better tolerability.

      In this case, the patient has evidence of early fibrosis and moderate inflammation on liver biopsy, indicating that treatment is necessary to prevent further liver damage. Entecavir would be the most appropriate choice to help control the infection and improve liver health in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      162.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which antiretroviral drug is recommended for adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also...

    Correct

    • Which antiretroviral drug is recommended for adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment?

      Your Answer: Dolutegravir

      Explanation:

      When an HIV-positive individual is receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment, there is a potential for drug interactions with certain antiretroviral drugs. Rifampicin is known to induce the metabolism of many antiretroviral drugs, leading to decreased levels of these medications in the body. This can result in reduced efficacy of the antiretroviral treatment and potentially lead to treatment failure.

      Dolutegravir (DTG) is one of the antiretroviral drugs that requires dose adjustment when co-administered with rifampicin. DTG is a integrase inhibitor that is commonly used in HIV treatment regimens due to its potency and tolerability. However, when taken with rifampicin, the metabolism of DTG is increased, leading to lower drug levels in the body.

      To counteract this effect and maintain optimal antiviral efficacy, the standard dose of DTG needs to be increased when taken with rifampicin-containing TB treatment. This adjustment helps to ensure that sufficient levels of DTG are maintained in the body to effectively suppress HIV replication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic. She is 28 weeks pregnant and her obstetrician wants you to assess her and provide medical advice for the mother and child.

      Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis C are most accurate in her case?

      Your Answer: Mother to baby transmission of hepatitis C is 15%

      Correct Answer: Breast-feeding does not increase the risk of transmission

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to baby during pregnancy or childbirth. In the case of the 33-year-old pregnant lady who is hepatitis C positive, it is important to provide accurate information and advice to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

      Breastfeeding does not increase the risk of transmission of hepatitis C from mother to baby. This is an important fact to remember when counseling the mother.

      Co-infection with HIV does increase the risk of transmission of hepatitis C from mother to baby. It is important to monitor and manage both infections in this case.

      A high viral load at delivery does increase the risk of transmission of hepatitis C from mother to baby. Close monitoring and appropriate management are necessary in this situation.

      Mother to baby transmission of hepatitis C is estimated to be around 5-15%. It is important to provide accurate information about the risk of transmission to the mother.

      There is no evidence to suggest that elective Caesarean section reduces the risk of transmission of hepatitis C from mother to baby. It is important to focus on monitoring and managing the infection during pregnancy and childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      176.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (4/9) 44%
Microbiology (6/8) 75%
Clinical Evaluation (2/4) 50%
Pathology (0/3) 0%
Epidemiology (3/6) 50%
Passmed