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  • Question 1 - A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an...

    Incorrect

    • A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an increase in abdominal size. Ultrasound was performed and revealed a foetus in which parameters correspond to 32 weeks of gestation. Upon history taking, it was noted that she works in a pub and occasionally takes marijuana, cocaine, amphetamine and opioid.

      Which of the following is considered to have the most teratogenic effect to the foetus?

      Your Answer: Amphetamine

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      All of the conditions that comprise fetal alcohol spectrum disorders stem from one common cause, which is prenatal exposure to alcohol. Alcohol is extremely teratogenic to a foetus. Its effects are wide-ranging and irreversible. Although higher amounts of prenatal alcohol exposure have been linked to increased incidence and severity of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, there are no studies that demonstrate a safe amount of alcohol that can be consumed during pregnancy. There is also no safe time during pregnancy in which alcohol can be consumed without risk to the foetus. Alcohol is teratogenic during all three trimesters. In summary, any amount of alcohol consumed at any point during pregnancy has the potential cause of irreversible damage that can lead to a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.

      In general, diagnoses within fetal alcohol spectrum disorders have one or more of the following features: abnormal facies, central nervous system abnormalities, and growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 10mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 7mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline is 7mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast that presented after a car accident 2 weeks ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Since the car crash happened two weeks prior, breast trauma is suggested and thus fat necrosis is the most probable diagnosis. Phyllodes tumours are typically a firm, palpable mass. These tumours are very fast-growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks. Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Progesterone gradually increases during the course of pregnancy, from 25 ng⋅mL−1 at 6 weeks’ to 150 ng⋅mL−1 at 37 weeks’ gestation. Progesterone acts as trigger of the primary respiratory centre by increasing the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide, as indicated by the steeper slope of the ventilation curve in response to alveolar carbon dioxide changes. Progesterone alters the smooth muscle tone of the airways resulting in a bronchodilator effect. It also mediates hyperaemia and oedema of mucosal surfaces, causing nasal congestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      83.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs,...

    Correct

    • Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs, sneezes, or coughs, as well as during activity, she experiences minor quantities of urine incontinence.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management next step?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscles exercise

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Weighted cones or topical steroids can be used as adjuvants but are not sufficient when used alone.

      Tension free vaginal tape and Burch’s colposuspension are considered for patients who fail to respond to conservative management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time?

      Your Answer: Factor V deficiency

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin time is increased in:
      – Factor V deficiency
      – Vitamin K deficiency (which affects factors 2,7 and 10)
      – Warfarin therapy
      – Severe liver failure
      Protein C is an anticoagulant and deficiency results in a hyper-coagulable state with tendency towards thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram...

    Correct

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram negative intracellular organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K subtypes) is the most common cause in this age group and fits the descriptors given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      112.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night.

      What would be the best advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Take the missed pill now, and then continue the original course, taking the next tablet in four hours’ time.

      Correct Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.

      Explanation:

      Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      367.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine?

      Your Answer: Histamine H1-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor. In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomiting. Both are H1 antagonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Villamentous insertion of placenta

      Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem

      Explanation:

      Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe: ...

    Correct

    • The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:

      Your Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      855.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer: 45XO

      Correct Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Incorrect

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.

      Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer: Intercourse day 4 to 9 abstinence day l0 until two days after the temperature elevation of 0.4°C, intercourse thereafter.

      Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      448.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:

      Your Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying...

    Incorrect

    • A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?

      Your Answer: 46XY

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4845.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation?

      Your Answer: Ladd's bands

      Explanation:

      Ladd’s bands are the most common form of peritoneal bands in malrotation of the intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      224.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer: 45

      Correct Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and some weight gain reports to clinic for a review. Her medical records show evidence of hypothyroidism. On examination, a non tender, hard goitre is palpated. Further tests reveal elevated anti TPO (anti thyroid peroxidase) and anti -Tg (anti thyroglobulin). Which of the following conditions is most likely to present like this?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's

      Explanation:

      The case presented points to a diagnosis of an autoimmune thyroiditis leading to hypothyroidism. The most common form of autoimmune hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s, often presents with a goitre, positive for antibody tests against thyroid components i.e. anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin. Graves disease and toxic diffuse goitre are more likely to cause hyperthyroidism. While De-Quervain’s and endemic goitre may cause hypothyroidism, they don’t result in positive antibody tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      321.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
      The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.

      On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
      Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
      – Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
      – Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
      -Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
      – Uterine tenderness
      – Change in uterine shape and contour
      – Easily palpable fetal parts
      – No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
      – Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.

      Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.

      Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.

      Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.

      Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.

      She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1014.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 61 year old patient undergoes laparotomy for a suspicious left sided ovarian...

    Incorrect

    • A 61 year old patient undergoes laparotomy for a suspicious left sided ovarian mass. Following histology the patient is diagnosed with a stage 1A ovarian epithelial cancer. What is the 5 year survival for stage 1 ovarian cancers?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      The five year survival of stage 1 ovarian cancer is 70-90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      806.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a...

    Correct

    • An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?

      Your Answer: Fetal ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Mullerian agenesis

      Correct Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts

      Explanation:

      A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 36 year old women attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old women attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows Psammoma bodies. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?

      Your Answer: Mucinous

      Correct Answer: Serous

      Explanation:

      Serous tumours of the ovaries are large, cystic and spherical to ovoid in shape. They can be benign or malignant. Malignant tumours are usually nodular with irregularities in the surface where the tumour penetrates into the serosa. Psammoma bodies are a histological identification for these tumours which appear in the tips of the papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      120.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (1/4) 25%
Obstetrics (3/5) 60%
Gynaecology (2/6) 33%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Embryology (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed