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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?
Your Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound
Explanation:A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.
Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.
He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.
Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 Ć 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.
Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects
Explanation:Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)
Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia
After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.
It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You areĀ given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:
A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
Local anaesthetic properties.
Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels
Explanation:Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.
It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.
Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.
Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.
Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.
Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.
Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.
Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukotrienes
Explanation:Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.
The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.
The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:
Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.
TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.
PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.
PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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