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  • Question 1 - Which of the following facts about IgE is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts about IgE is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.

      The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.

      IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.

      Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 2 - Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose

      Explanation:

      In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.

      With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.

      By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.

      The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.

      The fluid regimen recommended is:
      500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
      500ml of 5% dextrose and
      500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She was found collapsed on the street. She has visual and oculomotor deficits on examination, but her motor function is intact.

      A digital subtraction angiography is performed that shows occlusion of the basilar artery at the site where the vertebral arteries fuse to form the basilar artery.

      Which anatomical landmark corresponds to this site of occlusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The base of the pons

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is a large vessel that is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the junction of the medulla and pons. It lies in the pontine cistern and follows a shallow groove on the ventral pontine surface, extending to the upper border of the pons.

      The basilar artery then bifurcates into the two posterior cerebral arteries that form part of the Circle of Willis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 5 - A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
      1. pregnancy
      2. diabetes
      3. upper respiratory ailment
      4. GBS
      5. Toxins

      The common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
      1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
      2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
      3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
      4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
      5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
      6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 6 - A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

    It's...

    Incorrect

    • A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

      It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.

      Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane

      Explanation:

      Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.

      Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.

      Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.

      The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).

      The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.

      P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.

      Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - Volunteers are being recruited for a new clinical trial of a novel drug...

    Incorrect

    • Volunteers are being recruited for a new clinical trial of a novel drug treatment for Ulcerative colitis. The proposed study will enrol about 2000 people with ulcerative colitis. Testing will be performed to assess any reduction in disease severity with the new drug as compared to the current treatment available in the industry.

      Which phase of clinical trial will this be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      This clinical trial consists over 1000 patients being evaluated for the response to a new treatment against a currently licensed treatment for ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is comparing its efficacy to an established therapeutic or control in a larger population of volunteers. These are the characteristics of a phase III clinical trial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 8 - The required sample size in a trial of a new therapeutic agent varies...

    Incorrect

    • The required sample size in a trial of a new therapeutic agent varies with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Level of statistical significance required

      Explanation:

      The level of statistical significance required influences the sample size used. This is because sample size is used in the calculation of SD/SE.

      Sample size does not affect

      The level of acceptance
      The alternative hypothesis with a general level set at p<0.05
      The test to be used.

      Experience of the investigator and the type of patient recruited should have no bearing on the required sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 9 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Incorrect

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old man, visits his general practitioner complaining of a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man, visits his general practitioner complaining of a lump in his groin. He explains he is otherwise well and reports no other symptoms. The lump is examined and is found to be soft, and can be reduced without causing the patient pain. The GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia. To determine the nature of the hernia, the GP reduced the lump and applies pressure on the deep inguinal ring.

      The deep inguinal ring has what anatomical landmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring lies approximately 1.5-2cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle, next to the epigastric vessels.

      It is an important point in determining the nature of an inguinal hernia (direct or indirect). The patient is asked to cough after the hernia is reduced, with pressure applied to the deep inguinal ring. The hernia reappearing indicates it is direct, moving through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      Inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle is the normal anatomical position of the neck of a femoral hernia.

      Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle is the site of the superficial inguinal ring, and the normal anatomical position of the neck of an inguinal hernia.

      The mid-inguinal point is located halways between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. It is the surface marking for taking the femoral pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 11 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 12 - One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery...

    Incorrect

    • One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.

      The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
      1. Lacrimal nerve
      2. Frontal nerve
      3. Superior ophthalmic vein
      4. Trochlear nerve
      5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      6. Nasociliary nerve*
      7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      8. Abducent nerve*
      9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.

      The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.

      The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.

    Multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.

      Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.

      It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 14 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.

      Hb-102 g/l
      WBC - 2.9* 109/l
      Platelets - 7 * 109/l

      Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?


      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombopoietin

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.

      Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.

      Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.

      Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
      Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.

      Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emulsification of lipids

      Explanation:

      The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.

      Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.

      Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).

      Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .

      The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 18 - How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?...

    Incorrect

    • How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
      – 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
      – 6 paired branches
      – unpaired median sacral artery.

      We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
      -Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
      -Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
      -Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
      -Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteries

      The celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.

      The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.

      The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 19 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support.

      What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.

      It is a combination of:

      Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
      Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2O

      It is represented mathematically as:

      1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw

      Where,

      Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
      Cl = compliance of the lung
      Ccw = compliance of the chest wall

      Therefore in this case:

      1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200

      1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01

      1/Ct = 0.01

      Rearranging equation gives:

      Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 21 - A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia.

      On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait.

      Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:

      Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.

      Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.

      It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.

      The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.

      The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.

      Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 22 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 23 - An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.

      Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:

      pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
      PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
      PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
      SaO2: 90%
      Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
      BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)

      Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CSF pH

      Explanation:

      The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

      Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

      It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

      Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 24 - Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

      Explanation:

      Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Incorrect

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 26 - A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is...

    Incorrect

    • A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.

      At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:

      C = C0. e^-kt

      Where:
      C=drug concentration,
      C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
      k = rate constant and
      t = time.

      The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:

      The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:

      Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
      Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
      CVP 20 mmHg
      SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen

      What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biventricular failure

      Explanation:

      The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).

      The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).

      The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.

      120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).

      With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.

      By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.

      Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 28 - Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom...

    Incorrect

    • Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.

      Which term can be used to describe that?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

      An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

      A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.

      He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.

      The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and during the surgery, the inferior parathyroid gland is found to be enlarged. There is a vessel adjacent to this gland on its lateral side.

      What is this vessel most likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common carotid artery

      Explanation:

      There are four parathyroid glands that lie on the medial half of the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland, inside its sheath. There are two superior and two inferior parathyroid glands.

      The common carotid artery is a lateral relation of the inferior parathyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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