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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.
Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.
Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).
Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?Your Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.
Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.
Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?Your Answer: Change in plasma concentration is not linear
Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear
Explanation:Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.
There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.
In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.
In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.
Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Part of dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.
If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?Your Answer: 1 g with a maximum daily dose not exceeding 3 g
Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.
History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.
The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.
Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?Your Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.
When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.
At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?Your Answer: 90
Explanation:Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.
The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.
[A-]/[HA] = 0.1
Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.
Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?Your Answer: Tramadol hydrochloride
Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active seizures. The informant reported that it has been more than 5 minutes since the patient started seizing. The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus.
According to the paramedics who brought in the patient, 10 mg of diazepam was given rectally. Upon physical examination, she was normotensive at 120/80 mmHg; tachycardic at 138 beats per minute; tachypnoeic at 24 breaths per minute; and well-saturated at 99% on high flow oxygen. Her random blood glucose level was normal at 7.0 mmol/L.
Given this situation and an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus, what would be the best initial anti-epileptic drug to administer to the patient?Your Answer: Thiopentone
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and facilitate membrane hyperpolarization. It is the preferred treatment for status epilepticus, although Diazepam can also be used as an alternative.
Lorazepam has a longer duration of action than Diazepam, and binds with greater affinity to the GABA-A receptor subunit.
Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that acts on the GABA-A receptor site to increase the duration of chloride channel opening. Barbiturates, particularly phenobarbital, is considered the drug of choice for seizures in infants.
Phenytoin is a sodium-channel blocker that is given for generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, and status epilepticus. Phenytoin is preferred in prolonged therapy for status epilepticus because it is less sedating.
Propofol or thiopentone is preferred when airway protection is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:
Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?
Your Answer: Thiopental
Explanation:Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.
Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
– Propofol: 5-12 h
– Methohexitone: 3-5 h
– Ketamine: 2 h
– Etomidate: 1-4 h -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C.
The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.Your Answer: 2.7 L/minute
Explanation:The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:
Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.
VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.
2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor
Explanation:Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.
The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.
Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.
His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.
What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Tramadol
Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine
Explanation:Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.
Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.
Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.
The following are some of the risk factors:
Positive family history
Male
Children
An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine useDystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:
Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):
1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximumBenzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).
Midazolam:
1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam
Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):
Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of rifampicin?
Your Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis
Explanation:Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.
What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?Your Answer: 100 mL
Explanation:The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.
The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.
A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.
The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle
Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?
Your Answer: Insert a 2 generation supraglottic airway
Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.
Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.
No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.
An alternative strategy can then be planned.
The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.
Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:
Your Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.
Explanation:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.
Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.
They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.
It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.
The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:
Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25
From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half life of 3 hours
Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with acute intermittent porphyria requiring rapid sequence induction for emergency surgery?
Your Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.
Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.
Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.
Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.
Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?
Your Answer: Causes analgesia without sedation
Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
Explanation:Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.
Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.
Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)
It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?
Your Answer: Fentanyl
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.
Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:
Your Answer: Inhibit transpeptidation
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.
Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.
Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.
Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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