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  • Question 1 - Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old teacher who you are seeing for anxiety. She...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old teacher who you are seeing for anxiety. She tells you that she is convinced that her colleagues are talking about her behind her back. She knows this because sometimes they whisper when she walks by and then stop when she approaches. She has started recording their conversations and tells you she would confront them if she had proof. She has previously confronted a colleague and accused them of spreading rumors. She has two young children who she cares for at home.

      Which of the following is the most urgent aspect of your management plan?

      Your Answer: Start antipsychotic medication

      Correct Answer: Contact his wife to warn her she is in danger

      Explanation:

      The management plan will include all options, including contacting the police, and may involve admission under the Mental Health Act depending on the level of immediate risk. Morbid jealousy is a highly dangerous condition, with 17% of homicides in the UK linked to it. Studies have shown that 14% of those suffering from it have attempted to harm their partner, with over 50% having assaulted them, often while under the influence of alcohol. While the patient may be threatening only the other man, their partner is the most likely person to be harmed. Both men and women can pose a risk to their partners, but men are more likely to cause severe injuries. It is important to note that the duty of confidentiality does not override the duty to prevent foreseeable harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      129.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old woman experiences a stroke caused by a ruptured berry aneurysm in...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman experiences a stroke caused by a ruptured berry aneurysm in the right middle cerebral artery. She frequently collides with objects but denies any visual impairment.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anton syndrome

      Explanation:

      Anton-Babinski syndrome, also known as Anton syndrome of Anton’s blindness, is a rare condition caused by brain damage in the occipital lobe. Individuals with this syndrome are unable to see due to cortical blindness, but they insist that they can see despite evidence to the contrary. This is because they confabulate, of make up explanations for their inability to see. The syndrome is typically a result of a stroke, but can also occur after a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about the Brief Psychosis Rating Scale (BPRS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Brief Psychosis Rating Scale (BPRS)?

      Your Answer: It is user rated and does not require a clinician

      Correct Answer: It can be used for patients who are unable to read of write

      Explanation:

      Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale: An Instrument for Evaluating Psychopathology in Psychiatric Patients

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is a widely used tool for assessing psychopathology in psychiatric patients. It was developed in the 1960s by Overall and Gorham, using factor analysis, to evaluate the severity of schizophrenic states and provide clinicians with a quick way to assess patient change. Initially, the BPRS consisted of 16 items, but two more items were added to create the standard 18-item version. Later, an expanded 24-item version was introduced to measure additional aspects of schizophrenia, such as bizarre behavior, self-neglect, suicidality, elevated mood, motor hyperactivity, and distractibility.

      The BPRS is rated by a clinician, who assesses each item on a 7-point scale of severity. Higher scores indicate greater severity of symptoms. The assessment relies on a combination of self-report and observation. Several variables are rated based on observation, while the rest are assessed through a short interview. The total score severity, using the 18-item version, has been estimated as mildly ill (31), moderately ill (41), and markedly ill (53). The administration of the BPRS can take 10-40 minutes, and versions have been validated for use in both children and older adults. As it is clinician-administered, the BPRS does not require patients to be able to read of write.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      139.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is not a known aetiological factor in the development...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known aetiological factor in the development of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Maternal malnutrition

      Correct Answer: Separation anxiety disorder in childhood

      Explanation:

      Childhood separation anxiety disorder is linked to a higher likelihood of developing affective and neurotic disorders in the future, but it is not considered a cause of schizophrenia. The development of schizophrenia is thought to be influenced by various factors, including a family history of the disorder, specific genes that increase the risk, complications during birth, infections experienced by the mother of child, malnutrition during pregnancy, being born in the winter, having an older father, delayed developmental milestones, and substance abuse, particularly cannabis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Aetiology
      165.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which receptor type is associated with bronchial muscle relaxation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor type is associated with bronchial muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer: Α2

      Correct Answer: β2

      Explanation:

      β2-adrenoceptors are widely distributed in the respiratory tract. When they are activated, an intracellular response induces the activation of cyclic AMP; this, in turn, produces airway relaxation through phosphorylation of muscle regulatory proteins and modification of cellular Ca2+concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone...

    Incorrect

    • What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone official publication?

      Your Answer: EMBASE

      Correct Answer: SIGLE

      Explanation:

      SIGLE is a database that contains unpublished of ‘grey’ literature, while CINAHL is a database that focuses on healthcare and biomedical journal articles. The Cochrane Library is a collection of databases that includes the Cochrane Reviews, which are systematic reviews and meta-analyses of medical research. EMBASE is a pharmacological and biomedical database, and PsycINFO is a database of abstracts from psychological literature that is created by the American Psychological Association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      81.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which feature is not very useful in distinguishing between Parkinson's disease and progressive...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not very useful in distinguishing between Parkinson's disease and progressive supranuclear palsy?

      Your Answer: Midbrain atrophy

      Correct Answer: Pallor of the substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Both conditions exhibit pallor of the substantia nigra. However, in PSP, the locus coeruleus is typically unaffected, whereas in Parkinson’s disease, it shows pallor. Therefore, if there is pallor in this area, it would indicate Parkinson’s disease.

      Pathology of Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

      Progressive supranuclear palsy is a rare disorder that affects gait and balance, often accompanied by changes in mood, behavior, and dementia. The macroscopic changes observed in this condition include pallor of the substantia nigra (with sparing of the locus coeruleus), mild midbrain atrophy, atrophy of the superior cerebellar peduncles, and discolouration of the dentate nucleus. On a microscopic level, gliosis and the presence of neurofibrillary tangles and tau inclusions in both astrocytes and oligodendrocytes (coiled bodies) are observed, particularly in the substantia nigra, subthalamic nucleus, and globus pallidus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Who is credited with creating the term schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Bleuler

      Explanation:

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the term used to describe a drug that remains inactive until...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a drug that remains inactive until it is converted into its active metabolite?

      Your Answer: A pro metabolite

      Correct Answer: A prodrug

      Explanation:

      The Significance of Active Metabolites in Drug Discovery and Development

      Certain drugs are classified as prodrugs, which means that they are inactive when administered and require metabolism to become active. These drugs are converted into an active form, which is referred to as an active metabolite. Some drugs have important active metabolites, such as diazepam, dothiepin, fluoxetine, imipramine, risperidone, amitriptyline, and codeine, which are desmethyldiazepam, dothiepin sulfoxide, norfluoxetine, desipramine, 9-hydroxyrisperidone, nortriptyline, and morphine, respectively.

      The role of pharmacologically active metabolites in drug discovery and development is significant. Understanding the active metabolites of a drug can help in the development of more effective and safer drugs. Active metabolites can also provide insights into the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug, which can aid in the optimization of dosing regimens. Additionally, active metabolites can have different pharmacological properties than the parent drug, which can lead to the discovery of new therapeutic uses for a drug. Therefore, the study of active metabolites is an important aspect of drug discovery and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about valproate?

      Your Answer: The risk of malformations only applies when it is used in the first trimester

      Correct Answer: The risk of congenital malformations is dose dependent

      Explanation:

      Valproate can pass through the placenta, increasing the likelihood of birth defects. The extent of risk during pregnancy is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by the dosage. Children who were exposed to valproate in the womb may have a lower IQ, with those aged 6 showing an average decrease of 7-10 points compared to those exposed to other antiepileptic medications.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      49.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Assessment (0/1) 0%
Neurosciences (1/2) 50%
Classification And Assessment (1/2) 50%
Aetiology (0/1) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (0/1) 0%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/1) 0%
Psychopharmacology (0/2) 0%
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