00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse. Her ECG showed absent P-waves with irregular RR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. It is often asymptomatic but may present with symptoms of palpitations, fainting, chest pain and heart failure. Characteristic findings are: absence of P-waves, unorganised electrical activity in their place, irregularity of RR interval due to irregular conduction of impulses to the ventricles and if paroxysmal AF is suspected, episodes may be documented with the use of Holter monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer: Lactate and pyruvate

      Correct Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest that has spread to his neck with associated worsening shortness of breath. Which of these laboratory tests would you ask for in this patient:

      Your Answer: White blood cell count

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase-MB

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase-MB is a test that usually is ordered when the patient has chest pain as a cardiac marker. When a heart attack is suspected and a troponin test (which is more specific for heart damage), is not available CK-MB is ordered. There are 3 forms of CK: CK-MM, CK-BB and CK-MB. CK-MB is commonly found in heart tissue, therefore injured heart muscle cells release CK-MB into the blood. Elevated CK-MB levels indicate that it is probable that a person has recently had a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Among all body organs, the brain is most susceptible to ischaemia. Comprising of only 2.5% of total body weight, the brain receives 15% of the cardiac output. Oxygen extraction is also higher with venous oxygen levels approximating 13 vol%, and arteriovenous oxygen difference of 7 vol%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Correct

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the...

    Incorrect

    • If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the greatest decrease due to which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Infusion of adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Tissue cooling

      Explanation:

      With a constant blood flow to a given tissue bed, there will be an increase in oxygen extraction by the tissue with the following; an increase in tissue metabolism and oxygen requirements: warming (or fever), exercise, catecholamines and thyroxine. With cooling, the demand for oxygen decreases, leading to decreased oxygen extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart....

    Incorrect

    • A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great vessels

      Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in the blood pressure in a 30 year old patient with a BP of 40 mmHg?

      Your Answer: Carotid body chemoreceptors

      Correct Answer: Baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      The baroreflex or baroreceptor reflex is one of the body’s homeostatic mechanisms for regulating blood pressure. It provides a negative feedback response in which an elevated blood pressure will causes blood pressure to decrease; similarly, decreased blood pressure depresses the baroreflex, causing blood pressure to rise. The system relies on specialised neurones (baroreceptors) in the aortic arch, carotid sinuses and elsewhere to monitor changes in blood pressure and relay them to the brainstem. Subsequent changes in blood pressure are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. Baroreceptors include those in the auricles of the heart and vena cava, but the most sensitive baroreceptors are in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. The carotid sinus baroreceptors are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX); the aortic arch baroreceptors are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The T-wave is formed due to ventricular repolarisation. Normally, it is seen as a positive wave. It can be normally inverted (negative) in V1 (occasionally in V2-3 in African-Americans/Afro-Caribbeans). Hyperacute T-waves are the earliest ECG change of acute myocardial infarction. ECG findings of hyperkalaemia include high, tent-shaped T-waves, a small P-wave and a wide QRS complex. Hypokalaemia results in flattened (notched) T-waves, U-waves, ST-segment depression and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The most likely cause of prominent U waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG) of...

    Correct

    • The most likely cause of prominent U waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient is:

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The U-wave, not always visible in ECGs, is thought to represent repolarisation of papillary muscles or Purkinje fibres. When seen, it is very small and occurs after the T-wave. Inverted U-waves indicate myocardial ischaemia or left ventricular volume overload. Prominent U-waves are most commonly seen in hypokalaemia. Other causes include hypercalcaemia, thyrotoxicosis, digitalis exposure, adrenaline and class 1A and 3 anti-arrhythmic agents. It can also be seen in congenital long-QT syndrome and in intracranial haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Endorphin

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin is a peptide that is released in response to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. It has multiple functions but mainly acts to cause vasoconstriction, increase BP and release aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and release of aldosterone causes increased retention of sodium and excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      148.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake 200 ml/min, oxygen concentration in the peripheral vein 7 vol%, oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery 10 vol% and oxygen concentration in the aorta 15 vol%.

      Your Answer: 3500 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 4000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The Fick’s principle states that the uptake of a substance by an organ equals the arteriovenous difference of the substance multiplied by the blood flowing through the organ. We can thus calculate the pulmonary blood flow with pulmonary arterial (i.e., mixed venous) oxygen content, aortic oxygen content and oxygen uptake. The pulmonary blood flow, systemic blood flow and cardiac output can be considered the same assuming there are no intracardiac shunts. Thus, we can calculate the cardiac output. Cardiac output = oxygen uptake/(aortic − mixed venous oxygen content) = 200 ml/min/(15 ml O2/100 ml − 10 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/(5 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/0.05 = 4000 ml/min.

      It is crucial to remember to use pulmonary arterial oxygen content and not peripheral vein oxygen content, when calculating the cardiac output by Fick’s method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      412.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is 60 mmHg, pressure at the other end is 20 mm Hg and the flow rate in the artery is 200 ml/min.

      Your Answer: 0.05

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Flow in any vessel = Effective perfusion pressure divided by resistance, where effective perfusion pressure is the mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end. Thus, in the given problem, resistance = (60 − 20)/200 = 0.2 mmHg/ml per min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen...

    Correct

    • Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen in:

      Your Answer: Elevation in systemic arterial pressure from 100 to 130 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Constant cerebral blood flow is maintained by autoregulation in the brain, which causes an increase in local vascular resistance to offset an increase in blood pressure. There will be an increase in cerebral blood flow (and decrease in resistance to cerebral blood flow) with a decrease in arterial oxygen or an increase in arterial CO2. Similarly, a decrease in viscosity will also increase the blood flow. Due to increased brain metabolism and activity during a seizure, there will also be an increase in the cerebral blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on anticoagulation therapy. To reduce the risk of future emboli, she would benefit from starting on long-term warfarin. Arterial emboli leading to acute limb ischaemia most commonly lodge at which one of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Correct Answer: Common femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The common femoral artery is the commonest site of arterial emboli causing acute limb ischemia. The treatment of choice is urgent femoral embolectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a healthy individual?

      Your Answer: 0.001–0.002 s

      Correct Answer: 0.12–0.20 s

      Explanation:

      PR interval extends from the beginning of the P-wave until the beginning of the QRS complex. The normal duration of the PR interval is 0.12-0.20 s. It can be prolonged in first degree heart block, and reduced in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation?

      Your Answer: Veins

      Correct Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      Arterioles are also known as the resistance vessels as they are responsible for approximately half the resistance of the entire systemic circulation. They are richly innervated by the autonomic nervous system and hence, will bring about the maximum increase in peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his blood volume. What changes are most likely seen in the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) and pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) respectively following this decrease in cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Increase Decrease

      Explanation:

      Hypovolemia will result in the activation of the sympathetic adrenal discharge resulting is a decrease pulmonary artery pressure and an elevated pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man presents to the doctor complaining of pain in his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the doctor complaining of pain in his left calf whilst walking. He says that the pain goes away after a short period of rest but starts again during exercise or walking. The man reveals he has been a smoker for the last 15 years. His blood pressure, blood sugar and cholesterol level are normal. Artery biopsy shows intraluminal thrombosis and vasculitis. What's is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Thromboangiitis obliterans, also known as Buerger’s disease, is a rare type of occlusive peripheral arterial disease, usually seen in smokers, most commonly in men aged 20 to 40. Symptoms most often include intermittent claudication, skin changes, painful ulcers on extremities, pain in the extremities during rest and gangrene. Diagnosis is based on clinical findings, arteriography, echocardiography, and computed tomography angiography. A difference in blood pressure between arms, or between the arms and legs is a common finding. Electrocardiographic findings include nonspecific abnormality or normal results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (17/19) 89%
Physiology (14/15) 93%
Pathology (3/4) 75%
Passmed