00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Intravenous diazepam was administered to a man who was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • Intravenous diazepam was administered to a man who was brought to the emergency department with status epilepticus. He was administered 15 l/min oxygen via a reservoir bag mask. Blood investigations showed sodium = 140 mmol/l, potassium = 4 mmol/l and chloride = 98 mmol/l. His arterial blood gas analysis revealed pH 7.08, p(CO2)= 61.5 mmHg, p(O2) = 111 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 17 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: Mixed acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and low standard bicarbonate indicates mixed acidosis. Lower p(O2) is due to breathing of 70% oxygen. The prolonged seizures lead to lactic acidosis and the intravenous diazepam is responsible for the respiratory acidosis. Treatment includes airway manoeuvres and oxygen, assisted ventilation if needed, and treatment with fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer: Lateral meniscus

      Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Ileocolic

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops malignant mesothelioma and is scheduled for pleuropneumonectomy to remove the entire pleura and lung on the affected side. Which layer would provide a natural cleavage plane for surgical separation of the costal pleura from the thoracic wall?

      Your Answer: Transversus thoracis muscle fascia

      Correct Answer: Endothoracic fascia

      Explanation:

      The endothoracic fascia is connective tissue that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner aspect of the chest wall. Removing this layer of connective tissue would make it easy to separate the costal pleura from the thoracic wall.

      Deep fascia: is not found around the lungs. It is a layer of connective tissue that invests a muscle or a group of muscles.

      Parietal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the inner surface of the chest/thoracic cavity.

      Visceral pleura: is the serous membrane that lines the surface of the lungs.

      Transversus thoracis muscle fascia is associated only with the muscle transversus thoracis.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. It is not associated with the thoracic wall or the costal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the...

    Incorrect

    • A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?

      Your Answer: Median cubital

      Correct Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Incorrect

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer: Circumflex scapular artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      80.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Incorrect

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Parietal

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of...

    Correct

    • What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?

      Your Answer: Hydrolysis

      Explanation:

      Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a plasma thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 14 mU/l (normal < 5 mU/l) and a low T3 resin uptake of 19% (normal 25–35%)?

      Your Answer: Increased body temperature

      Correct Answer: Periorbital swelling and lethargy

      Explanation:

      Low T3 resin uptake combined with raised TSH is indicative of hypothyroidism. Signs and symptoms include dull expression, facial puffiness, lethargy, periorbital swelling due to infiltration with mucopolysaccharides, bradycardia and cold intolerance. Anxiety, palpitations, tachycardia, raised body temperature, heat intolerance and weight loss are all seen in hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Correct

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - After a prolonged coronary artery bypass surgery, a 60-year old gentleman was transfused...

    Incorrect

    • After a prolonged coronary artery bypass surgery, a 60-year old gentleman was transfused 3 units of fresh-frozen plasma and 2 units of packed red cells. Two days later, the nurse noticed that he was tachypnoeic and chest X-ray showed signs consistent with adult respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following variables will be low in this patient?

      Your Answer: Work of breathing

      Correct Answer: Compliance of the lung

      Explanation:

      Acute or adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a reaction to several forms of lung injuries and is commonly associated with sepsis and SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome), severe traumatic injury, severe head injury, narcotics overdose, drowning, pulmonary contusion, and multiple blood transfusions. There is an increase in risk due to pre-existing liver disease or coagulation abnormalities. It results due to indirect toxic effects of neutrophil-derived inflammatory mediators in the lungs. ARDS is defined by the 1994 American–European Consensus Committee as the acute onset of bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (pa(O2)) to fraction of inspired oxygen Fi(O2) ratio of less than 200 mmHg and a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of less than 18 or the absence of clinical evidence of left arterial hypertension. ARDS is basically pulmonary oedema in the absence of volume overload or poor left ventricular function. This is different from acute lung injury, which shows a pa(O2)/Fi(O2) ratio of less than 300 mmHg. Pathogenesis of ARDS starts from damage to alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, causing increased permeability. Damage to surfactant-producing type II cells disrupts the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, causing micro atelectasis and poor gas exchange. There is a decrease in lung compliance and increase in work of breathing. Eventually, there is resorption of alveolar oedema, regeneration of epithelial cells, proliferation and differentiation of type II alveolar cells and alveolar remodelling. Some show resolution and some progress to fibrosing alveolitis, which involves the deposition of collagen in alveolar, vascular and interstitial spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Incorrect

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lateral supraclavicular

      Correct Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Descending corticospinal tract

      Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.

      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:

      Your Answer: Elevated serum creatinine

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Platelet

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.

      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.

      Basophils are not present.

      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?

      Your Answer: Storage of fat-soluble vitamins

      Correct Answer: Recycling of old red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells found in the liver are part of the monocyte-reticular system. They are specialised macrophages and primarily function to recycle old and damaged RBCs. The RBCs are phagocytosed and the haemoglobin is broken down into haem and globin. The haem is further broken down into iron that is recycled and bilirubin that is conjugated with glucuronic acid and excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor XII

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop? ...

    Correct

    • What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop?

      Your Answer: Synthesis of proteins

      Explanation:

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the factory for the manufacturing of proteins. It contains ribosomes attached to it and transports proteins that are destined for membranes and secretions. The rough ER is connected to the nuclear envelope and to the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus by vesicles that shuttle between the two compartments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands....

    Correct

    • A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater...

    Correct

    • During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?

      Your Answer: Splenic artery

      Explanation:

      Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to the casualty after he had fallen from the 3rd floor of a building. An examination carried out revealed tenderness on the left mid-posterior axillary line and low blood pressure. Further palpation revealed a large swelling that protruded downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays showed that the 9th and the 10th ribs were fractured near their angles. Considering these results, which abdominal organ was likely injured by the fractured ribs.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen, left kidney, stomach, the splenic flexure of the colon and the suprarenal glands are all in the same quadrant- the left upper quadrant. However, the spleen is the most readily injured organ when there is fracture to the 10th, 11th and the 12th ribs because of its close association with these ribs. This patient exhibits a great indication of a ruptured spleen (tenderness on the left mid and posterior axillary line). The spleen is a thin capsulated organ with a spongy parenchyma, allowing it to bleed profusely in the event of injury. The liver, head of the pancreas and the duodenum are all in the right upper quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is:

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, activating dopamine receptors. It is also a neurohormone released from the hypothalamus. It plays an important role in the reward system. It is believed that dopamine provides a teaching signal to parts of the brain responsible for acquiring new motor sequences (behaviours), by activation of dopamine neurons when an unexpected reward is presented. Loss of dopamine neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway causes Parkinson’s disease. In the frontal lobes, dopamine controls the flow of information from other areas of the brain, and thus, dopamine disorders in this region can cause a decline in neurocognitive functions, especially memory, attention and problem solving. Reduced dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex are thought to contribute to attention-deficit disorder and some symptoms of schizophrenia. Dopamine is also the primary neuroendocrine regulator of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine is also commonly associated with the pleasure system of the brain. This plays a key role in understanding the mechanism of action of drugs (such as cocaine and the amphetamines), which seem to be directly or indirectly related to the increase of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy....

    Incorrect

    • During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy. As the scope is passed down the trachea, you see a cartilaginous structure that resembles a ship's keel and separates the right and the left main stem bronchi. This structure is the:

      Your Answer: Tracheal ring

      Correct Answer: Carina

      Explanation:

      The carina (a keel-like cartilage) is found at the bifurcation of the trachea separating the right from the left main stem bronchi. It is a little more to the left than to the right.

      The cricoid cartilage is the inferior and posterior cartilage of the larynx.

      The costal cartilage on the other hand elongates the ribs anteriorly and contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage.

      The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Tracheal rings are rings of cartilage that support the trachea.

      Peritracheal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea from the outside and is not visible on bronchoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Correct

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Lateral rectus muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Ventral root of T2

      Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which is a feature of the action of insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is a feature of the action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits potassium entry into cells

      Correct Answer: Promotes protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Its actions include:

      – promoting uptake of glucose into cells

      – glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis)

      – protein synthesis

      – stimulation of lipogenesis (fat formation).

      – driving potassium into cells – used to treat hyperkaelamia.

      Parathyroid hormone and activated vitamin D are the principal hormones involved in calcium/phosphate metabolism, rather than insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal...

    Incorrect

    • At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?

      Your Answer: C2

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.

      Your Answer: Minimal-change disease

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow?

      Your Answer: Vagal stimulation

      Correct Answer: Vasopressin

      Explanation:

      Gastric blood flow is increased by vagal stimulation, gastrin, histamine and acetylcholine as they stimulate gastric section and the production of vasodilator metabolites. Acetylcholine and histamine also have a direct action on the gastric arterioles. Similarly, gastric blood flow is reduced by inhibitors of secretion – catecholamines, secretin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did...

    Incorrect

    • During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:

      Your Answer: Following the course of the right colic artery

      Correct Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is...

    Incorrect

    • Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of venous and arterial thrombotic disorders. Which of the following is LMWHs mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of protein C

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a anticoagulant that differs from normal heparin in that it has only short chains of polysaccharide. LMWH inhibits thrombin formation by converting antithrombin from a slow to a rapid inactivator of coagulation factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from his best friend. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and he is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when his renal function is assessed, he showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. He was given antilymphocyte globulins and his condition reversed. During the crisis period the patient is likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer: Acute rejection

      Explanation:

      This patients is most likely experiencing an acute rejection. It is a cell mediated attack against the organ that has been transplanted. Antigens are either presented by blood borne cells with in the graft or antigen presenting cells in the body may be presenting class I and class II molecules that have been shed by the graft. Class I will activate CD8 and class II, CD4 cells, both of which will attack the graft.

      Chronic rejection is a slow process which occurs months to years after the transplant. The exact mechanism is not very well understood but it probably involves a combination of Type III and Type IV hypersensitivity directed against the foreign MHC molecules which look like self-MHC presenting a foreign antigen.

      Hyperacute Transplant Rejection occurs almost immediately and is often evident while you are still in surgery. It is caused by accidental ABO Blood type mismatching of the donor and recipient which almost never happens anymore. This means the host has preformed antibodies against the donated tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Renal
      • Pathology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on anticoagulation therapy. To reduce the risk of future emboli, she would benefit from starting on long-term warfarin. Arterial emboli leading to acute limb ischaemia most commonly lodge at which one of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Aortic bifurcation

      Correct Answer: Common femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The common femoral artery is the commonest site of arterial emboli causing acute limb ischemia. The treatment of choice is urgent femoral embolectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Drug induced

      Correct Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Central canal

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) will most likely be reduced by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) will most likely be reduced by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Fever

      Correct Answer: Decrease in body temperature

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is defined as the rate of calorie consumption after an overnight fast, in the absence of any muscular activity, with the patient in a restful state. Various factors affect the BMR including weight, body surface area and age. The BMR is 30 kcal/m2 per hour at birth; at age 2, the rate is 57 kcal/m2 per hour; and at age 20, 41 kcal/m2 per hour. After this, the BMR decreases by 10% between 20-60 years of age. Women are known to have a 10% lower BMR than men (due to higher fat content). A one-degree change in body temperature leads to a 10% change in BMR in the same direction. However, shivering and increasing ambient temperature brings about a rise in BMR, and so does stress, physical activity, caffeine, theophylline and hyperthyroidism. Also, thermogenesis induced by diet results in increased metabolic rate and hence, BMR should be ideally measured after overnight fasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Incorrect

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (15/18) 83%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (5/5) 100%
Thorax (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Head & Neck (4/5) 80%
Gastroenterology (3/4) 75%
Physiology (9/12) 75%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Pathology (9/9) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology; Renal (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed