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  • Question 1 - During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules...

    Correct

    • During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules occur?

      Your Answer: S

      Explanation:

      DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further.

      Interphase is composed of G1 phase (cell growth), followed by S phase (DNA synthesis), followed by G2 phase (cell growth). At the end of interphase comes the mitotic phase, which is made up of mitosis and cytokinesis and leads to the formation of two daughter cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Where do the meningeal veins lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the meningeal veins lie?

      Your Answer: Endosteal layer of the dura

      Explanation:

      Meningeal veins lie in the endosteal layer of the dura. The veins lie lateral to the arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?...

    Correct

    • Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?

      Your Answer: Right homonymous hemianopia

      Explanation:

      Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion or pressure on the left optic tract. Total blindness of the left eye is due to a complete occlusion of the left optic nerve. Bipolar hemianopia is due to a midline chiasmal lesion. Left nasal hemianopia due to a lesion involving the left perichiasmal area. Right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is due to involvement of the lower left optic radiations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it? ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it?

      Your Answer: Can be heard in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle by atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of...

    Incorrect

    • In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of the following is not associated with increased risk of sudden death?

      Your Answer: left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)

      Correct Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a disease in which a portion of the myocardium (heart muscle) is enlarged without any obvious cause, creating functional impairment of the heart. It is the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes. The major risk factors for sudden death (SD) are recent unexplained syncope unlikely to be neurocardiogenic; HCM-related SD in first-degree or other close relatives; repetitive and/or prolonged nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (NSVT) episodes on Holter or extended ambulatory monitoring; massive left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) (wall thickness ≥30 mm); extensive/diffuse late gadolinium enhancement (LGE); end-stage heart failure usually with systolic dysfunction; and thin-walled akinetic LV apical aneurysm with regional scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?

      Your Answer: Chloride/bicarbonate exchanger

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase

      Explanation:

      The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?

      Your Answer: Canal of schlemm

      Explanation:

      Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except:

      Your Answer: Increased number of β1-adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Increased expression of β-myosin heavy chain gene

      Explanation:

      Tri-iodothyronine, also known as T3, is a hormone which can affect almost every system in the human body. In the heart, it increases the number of β1-adrenergic receptors, enhances the response to circulating catecholamines, increases the proportion of α-myosin heavy chains in the atria, and increases the expression of serca pump gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:

      Your Answer: Midline and intralaminar nuclei

      Correct Answer: Specific relay nuclei

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current. ...

    Correct

    • The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.

      Your Answer: K+

      Explanation:

      The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is safe in pregnancy and is therefore the first line management. Warfarin is teratogenic and must be avoided whilst the other options have no role to play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair: ...

    Incorrect

    • Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair:

      Your Answer: Mucus neck cells and chief cells

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells and chief cells

      Explanation:

      In the body of the stomach, the vagal postganglionic muscarinic nerves release acetylcholine(ACh) which stimulates parietal cell H+ secretion. Gastric chief cells are primarily activated by ACh. However the decrease in pH caused by activation of parietal cells further activates gastric chief cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?

      Your Answer: GLUT 1

      Correct Answer: GLUT 2

      Explanation:

      Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - When the heart rate is increased (to pathological levels) which of the following...

    Correct

    • When the heart rate is increased (to pathological levels) which of the following is correct when comparing the duration of diastole to systole?

      Your Answer: It is shortened to a greater degree

      Explanation:

      The duration of systole is more fixed than the duration of diastole. When the heart rate increases the timing of the systole remains more or less the same however diastole decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      365.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - B1 adrenergic stimulation produces: ...

    Incorrect

    • B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:

      Your Answer: Negative inotropy

      Correct Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located? ...

    Correct

    • Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located?

      Your Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. These cranial nerves take origin from the midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process? ...

    Correct

    • Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis

      Explanation:

      The complement system is a part of the immune system that enhances (complements) the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism or apoptosis. It is part of the innate immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal] ...

    Correct

    • Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal]

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes the formation of tall tented T waves due to altered repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?

      Your Answer: Water constitutes 97% of the solution

      Correct Answer: Contains only actively secreted substances

      Explanation:

      Hepatic bile is an isotonic fluid and its electrolyte composition resembles that of plasma. 97% of water is found in the gallbladder bile, not hepatic duct. Hepatic bile is alkaline. The ratio of bile acids: phosphatidylcholine: cholesterol is 20:1:3. Hepatic bile contai9ns only actively secreted substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:...

    Correct

    • The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is the enzyme responsible for maintenance of the length of telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive sequences. Telomerase activity is exhibited in gametes and stem and tumor cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea,...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following conditions is procoagulant? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is procoagulant?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation of one of the clotting factors in the blood, Factor V. This mutation makes Factor V resistant to inactivation by activated Protein C, which normally helps to regulate clot formation. As a result, individuals with Factor V Leiden are at increased risk of developing abnormal blood clots (thrombophilia), making it a procoagulant condition.

      The other conditions listed are associated with bleeding tendencies rather than increased clotting:

      • Afibrinogenemia: A rare genetic disorder where there is a complete lack of fibrinogen, leading to bleeding problems.
      • Hemophilia: A group of inherited bleeding disorders where blood does not clot properly due to the lack of sufficient blood-clotting proteins (factors VIII or IX).
      • Hypothrombinemia: A condition characterized by low levels of prothrombin, leading to increased bleeding.
      • Christmas disease (Hemophilia B): A form of hemophilia caused by a deficiency of factor IX, resulting in a bleeding tendency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.Paracetamol overdose:The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water.On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic.What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.Management: – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.- Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline). – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.- Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning?

      Your Answer: Sweating and lacrimation

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Opioid poisoning is classically associated with pinpoint pupils, reduced respiratory rate, bradycardia, drowsiness and coma. Hypothermia is a feature of barbiturate poisoning, while sweating and lacrimation are seen in cases of opiate withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?...

    Correct

    • Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?

      Your Answer: Dihydropyridine receptors

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ form the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors.

      Dihydropyridine receptors (DHPRs), are voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, and ryanodine receptors (RyRs), which are intracellular Ca2+ release channels, are expressed in diverse cell types, including skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      Ryanodine receptors (RyRs) are located in the sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum membrane and are responsible for the release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores during excitation-contraction coupling in both cardiac and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas: ...

    Correct

    • Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas:

      Your Answer: Hippocampus and striatum

      Explanation:

      In humans, neurogenesis or new neurons are continually born during adulthood in two regions of the brain: The subgranular zone (SGZ), part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the striatum. In other species of mammals, adult-born neurons also appear in the olfactory bulb. In humans, however, few if any olfactory bulb neurons are generated after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Sleep

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output. Anxiety, excitement and pregnancy will increase the cardiac output. Standing from a lying position will decrease the cardiac output transiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Basolateral surface of thick ascending limb

      Correct Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show:Hb: 130g/lPlatelets: 359*109/lWBC: 10*109/lCRP: 89mg/lWhich of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer: Trauma

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:- Idiopathic- Trauma, excessive manicuring- Infection: especially fungal- Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis- Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s- Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda- Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).- Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland receives its blood supply from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries. The recurrent laryngeal nerves emerges from the superior thoracic outlet bounded in part by the thyroid lobe. Two pairs of parathyroid glands lie near the thyroid. The common carotid artery splits into its external and internal branches at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage; these branches are separated by the gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Where do the spinothalamic axons decussate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the spinothalamic axons decussate?

      Your Answer: Midbrain

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord

      Explanation:

      The second order neurons from the spinothalamic tract cross obliquely to the opposite side in the anterior grey and white commissure within one segment of the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are:

      Your Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, active ventricular filling, passive ventricular filling.

      Correct Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.1st stage: diastole, or passive filling is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. 2nd stage: atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle (active filling).3rd stage: isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. 4th stage: ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. 5th stage: isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s): ...

    Correct

    • Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s):

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Endothelial cells produce thromboxane, prostacyclins, nitric oxides, endothelins, IL-1 and TNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the:

      Your Answer: Midbrain

      Correct Answer: Medulla

      Explanation:

      The corticospinal tract is a descending motor path way that begins in the cerebral cortex and decussates in the pyramids of the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Inactive cellular marrow is called ...

    Correct

    • Inactive cellular marrow is called

      Your Answer: Yellow marrow

      Explanation:

      The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Concerning coronary arteries, what is the net effect of B2 stimulation on the...

    Correct

    • Concerning coronary arteries, what is the net effect of B2 stimulation on the heart (e.g. Running athlete)?

      Your Answer: Vasodilation via production of metabolites

      Explanation:

      The coronary arterioles contain α-adrenergic receptors, which cause vasoconstriction, and β-adrenergic receptors, which cause vasodilation. Activity in the noradrenergic nerves to the heart and injections of norepinephrine cause coronary vasodilation. However, norepinephrine also increases the heart rate and the force of cardiac contraction, and the vasodilation is due to production of vasodilator metabolites in the myocardium secondary to the increase in its activity. As exercise has the same effect as sympathetic stimulation, it will result in vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Catecholamines… ...

    Correct

    • Catecholamines…

      Your Answer: Activate adenylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine and epinephrine activate or deactivate adenylyl cyclase resulting in a decrease or an increase in the production of cAMP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following concerning PR interval is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following concerning PR interval is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: PR interval allows the atria to contract and fill the ventricle with blood

      Correct Answer: Always measured from the beginning of p wave to the beginning of r wave

      Explanation:

      The PR interval measures the time from the start of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization. The PR interval is only measured from the beginning of P wave to beginning of R wave if the Q wave is absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Correct

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which one of the following antibiotics is safest to use in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following antibiotics is safest to use in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics that should be avoided in pregnancy are included in the mnemonic: Countless SAFe Moms Take Really Good Care -Clarithromycin, Sulphonamides, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Tetracyclines, Ribavirin, Griseofulvin, Chloramphenicol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Corticospinal tracts are located in the ___ of the white matter. ...

    Incorrect

    • Corticospinal tracts are located in the ___ of the white matter.

      Your Answer: Posterior and lateral funiculi

      Correct Answer: Anterior and lateral funiculi

      Explanation:

      The corticospinal tract is a descending or a motor tract which projects nerve fibers from the cortex of the cerebrum down to different levels of the spinal cord. The descending corticospinal tract descends from the origin, through the corona radiata, posterior half of the lateral ventricle, and enters the midbrain through the cerebral peduncle. In the medulla they form the medullary pyramids on either side of midline as lateral and anterior fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are the emboliform and globose nuclei in the paravermis

      Explanation:

      The interposed nuclei are a part of deep cerebellar complex and are composed of the globose nucleus and the emboliform nucleus. It receives afferent fibers from the anterior lobe of the cerebellum and sends output via the superior cerebellar peduncle to the red nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following is true for P 53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P 53:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles

      Explanation:

      Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles: This statement is incorrect. The mitral valve closes due to the pressure difference between the left ventricle and the left atrium at the onset of ventricular systole. The papillary muscles contract to prevent prolapse of the valve into the atrium but do not cause the valve to close.

      The left ventricular volume is maximal at the end of atrial systole: This statement is true. At the end of atrial systole, the atria have pushed the remaining blood into the ventricles, making the ventricular volume maximal (end-diastolic volume).

      The left ventricular pressure is maximal just before the aortic valve opens: This statement is true. Left ventricular pressure peaks just before the aortic valve opens, as the ventricle contracts to overcome the pressure in the aorta.

      The ejection fraction is about 55%: This statement is true. The ejection fraction, which is the percentage of blood ejected from the ventricles with each contraction, is typically around 55%.

      The ‘a’ wave is due to atrial systole: This statement is true. The ‘a’ wave on the venous pressure curve corresponds to atrial systole, reflecting the increased pressure from atrial contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Carbohydrates digestion starts in the ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbohydrates digestion starts in the

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Digestion begins in the mouth with the secretion of saliva and its digestive enzymes. Food is formed into a bolus by the mechanical mastication and swallowed into the oesophagus from where it enters the stomach through the action of peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided? ...

    Incorrect

    • Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The functional division of the cerebellum are the: Vestibulocerebellum (floculonodular lobe), Spinocerebellum (vermis and associated areas in the midline) and cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following factors serve to decrease cardiac output? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors serve to decrease cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standing from a lying position

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output. Anxiety, excitement, increased body temperature and pregnancy will increase the cardiac output. Standing from a lying position will decrease the cardiac output transiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above...

    Incorrect

    • The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above mentioned enzymes is located where?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brush border of small intestine

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre. Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.Management of alcoholism:Nutritional support: – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.Pharmacological management:- Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal- Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.- Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - The Cellular Theory of Ageing involves? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Cellular Theory of Ageing involves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of telomeres

      Explanation:

      Cellular theories of aging propose that human aging is the result of cellular aging, whereby an increasing proportion of cells reach senescence, a terminal stage at which cells will cease to divide. This will limit the body’s ability to regenerate and to respond to injury or stress. Telomeres are bits of DNA on the ends of chromosomes that protect chromosomes from sticking to each other or tangling, which could cause DNA to abnormally function. As cells replicate, telomeres shorten at the end of chromosomes, and this process correlates to senescence or cellular aging.

      Other theories include:

      1. The Free Radical Theory: Implicates the gradual accumulation of oxidative cellular damage as a fundamental driver of cellular aging. This theory has evolved over time to emphasize the role of free radical induced mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) mutations and the accumulation of mtDNA deletions. Given the proximity of mtDNA to the electron transport chain, a primary producer of free radicals, it postulates that the mutations would promote mitochondrial dysfunction and concomitantly increase free radical production in a positive feedback loop. It is known that diet, lifestyle, drugs (e.g. tobacco and alcohol) and radiation etc., are all accelerators of free radical production within the body.
      2. Error theory: based on the idea that errors can occur in the transcription of the synthesis of DNA. These errors are perpetuated and eventually lead to systems that do not function at the optimum level. The organism’s aging and death are attributable to these events (Sonneborn, 1979).
      3. The Cross-Linking Theory: also referred to as the Glycosylation Theory of Aging. In this theory it is the binding of glucose (simple sugars) to protein, (a process that occurs under the presence of oxygen) that causes various problems. Once this binding has occurred the protein becomes impaired and is unable to perform as efficiently. Living a longer life is going to lead to the increased possibility of oxygen meeting glucose and protein and known cross-linking disorders include senile cataract and the appearance of tough, leathery and yellow skin.
      4. The Neuroendocrine Theory First proposed by Professor Vladimir Dilman and Ward Dean MD, this theory elaborates on wear and tear by focusing on the neuroendocrine system. This system is a complicated network of biochemicals that govern the release of hormones which are altered by the walnut sized gland called the hypothalamus located in the brain. The hypothalamus controls various chain-reactions to instruct other organs and glands to release their hormones etc. The hypothalamus also responds to the body hormone levels as a guide to the overall hormonal activity. But as we grow older the hypothalamus loses it precision regulatory ability and the receptors which uptake individual hormones become less sensitive to them. Accordingly, as we age the secretion of many hormones declines and their effectiveness (compared unit to unit) is also reduced due to the receptors down-grading
      5. The Membrane Theory of Aging: According to this theory it is the age-related changes of the cell’s ability to transfer chemicals, heat and electrical processes that impair it. As we grow older the cell membrane becomes less lipid (less watery and more solid). This impedes its efficiency to conduct normal function and in particular there is a toxic accumulation
      6. The Decline Theory: The mitochondria are the power producing organelles found in every cell of every organ. Their primary job is to create Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) and they do so in the various energy cycles that involve nutrients such as Acetyl-L-Carnitine, CoQ10 (Idebenone), NADH and some B vitamins etc. Enhancement and protection of the mitochondria is an essential part of preventing and slowing aging. Enhancement can be achieved with the above mention nutrients, as well as ATP supplements themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ornithine transcarbamylase

      Explanation:

      Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency also known as OTC deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder in humans. Ornithine transcarbamylase, the defective enzyme in this disorder is the final enzyme in the proximal portion of the urea cycle, responsible for converting carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine into citrulline. OTC deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, meaning males are more commonly affected than females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the? ...

    Incorrect

    • Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Renal protein reabsorption is the part of renal physiology that deals with the retrieval of filtered proteins, preventing them from disappearing from the body through the urine. Almost all reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule. Only ,1% is left in the final urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facilitate oxidations or hydrolysis of drugs.

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p 450 are a family of proteins involved in drug metabolism which accounts for about 75% of the total metabolism. Most drugs are deactivated directly or by facilitated excretion from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History and physical examination

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following occurs during a Valsalva manoeuvre? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following occurs during a Valsalva manoeuvre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An initial rise in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      The Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed glottis. It has several phases, each affecting the cardiovascular system differently:

      1. Phase I: During the initial forced expiration against the closed glottis, there is a transient rise in intrathoracic pressure, which compresses the thoracic aorta and causes a brief increase in blood pressure.
      2. Phase II: Continued straining leads to decreased venous return to the heart, reducing cardiac output and causing a drop in blood pressure. This phase is characterized by a compensatory increase in heart rate.
      3. Phase III: Upon releasing the strain, there is a sudden drop in intrathoracic pressure, which momentarily decreases blood pressure.
      4. Phase IV: Blood pressure then rises rapidly as venous return to the heart is restored, leading to increased cardiac output. This is often followed by a reflex bradycardia (slow heart rate).

      Given these phases, the most accurate statement about what occurs during the Valsalva maneuver is the initial rise in blood pressure (Phase I).

      Other options explained:

      • Forced inspiration against a closed glottis: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration, not inspiration, against a closed glottis.
      • Low intrathoracic pressures throughout: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver involves high intrathoracic pressures due to forced expiration.
      • Disruption of autonomic function: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver affects autonomic function but does not disrupt it. Instead, it triggers autonomic responses to changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
      • No change: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver causes significant changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What causes increased insulin sensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What causes increased insulin sensitivity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Physical activity, through its effect on insulin sensitivity, is one of the main modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes. It is estimated that by each weekly 500 kcal increment in exercise related energy consumption, the lifetime risk of suffering from type 2 diabetes is reduced by 9%. Up to two hours after exercise, glucose uptake is elevated due to insulin independent mechanisms; however, insulin sensitivity remains increased for at least 16 hours after exercising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA

      Explanation:

      80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following receptors are found in the liver? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following receptors are found in the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: α1, β2

      Explanation:

      Liver consists of the sympathetic Alpha 1 and beta 2 receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK): ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK):

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Explanation:

      CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin, resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon. It is released (secreted) by your small intestine during the digestive process. It’s sometimes called pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?...

    Incorrect

    • The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolites of oxygen consumption

      Explanation:

      There is a strong relationship between myocardial blood flow and oxygen consumption. This indicates that products of metabolism may cause vasodilation of the coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What is the effect of vasopressin on the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the effect of vasopressin on the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase collecting duct permeability to water

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone or ADH, which increases water reabsorption in the kidney’s collecting ducts. It works by increasing water permeability in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules. It induces the exocytosis of AQP-CD-laden vesicles, transferring water channels from intracellular vesicles to the apical plasma membrane, therefore allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine in the collecting ducts to the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are dark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A band and z line

      Explanation:

      Dark bands: a, h. Dark line: z. Clear band: i, m

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Although rare, ocular toxicity in the form of optic neuritis (most commonly retrobulbar neuritis) has been well documented as a side effect of ethambutol. It is renally excreted and not associated with hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - All of the following are Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Activated Vitamin K is used to gamma carboxylate (and thus activate) certain enzymes involved in coagulation: Factors II, VII, IX, X, and protein C and protein S. Inability to activate the clotting cascade via these factors leads to the bleeding symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following regulates the calcium release channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regulates the calcium release channels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calstabin 2

      Explanation:

      Ca2+ is released from the SR through a Ca2+ release channel, a cardiac isoform of the ryanodine receptor (RyR2), which controls intracytoplasmic [Ca2+] and, as in vascular smooth-muscle cells, leads to the local changes in intracellular [Ca2+] called calcium sparks. A number of regulatory proteins, including calstabin 2, inhibit RyR2 and, thereby, the release of Ca2+ from the SR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series of membrane compartments known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubulovesicles

      Explanation:

      The gastric H, K-ATPase pump, which pumps gastric acid (HCl), in the resting state is found in cytoplasmic tubular membranes. In the stimulated state this pump moves from the tubulovesicles to the apical membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to: ...

    Incorrect

    • The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High hydrogen and high carbon dioxide

      Explanation:

      The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds mainly to high pH levels and carbon dioxide levels. Baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic body respond mainly to oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressure in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:...

    Incorrect

    • The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right and left gastro-epiploic arteries

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the left and the right gastro-epiploic arteries branching from the splenic artery near the hilum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers… ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are thinly myelinated

      Explanation:

      Group C nerve fibers are unmyelinated and have a small diameter, which means they conduct impulses at a low velocity. They carry sensory information and nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months ago was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed as possible side-effects, however they are not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:

      • Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      • Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      • Venous thromboembolism.
      • Endometrial cancer (although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue, tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased). Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

       

       

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 82 - Which enzyme facilitates the function of pancreatic lipase by increasing exposure of its...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme facilitates the function of pancreatic lipase by increasing exposure of its active site?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colipase

      Explanation:

      Colipase is a co enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase by facilitating the exposure of its active sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis… ...

    Incorrect

    • Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occurs in the cytosol of developing red cells.

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol. Production of Hb continues in the cell throughout its early development from the proerythroblast to the reticulocyte in the bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T4

      Explanation:

      T3 and T4 are the two tyrosine-based hormones produced and secreted by the thyroid gland. Although T3 is the active form of the hormone, and thus, it is much more potent; T4 is the most abundant hormone secreted by the thyroid (93% of the total thyroid secretion) and it also has a longer half life since it binds to proteins much more strongly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac plexus

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and blood tests are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV 12mg adenosine

      Explanation:

      For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. In adults the recommended first dose of intravenous adenosine is 6 mg. The dose is administered rapidly and then followed by a saline flush. Adenosine is only present in the circulation for about 5 seconds, so it is an excellent drug for diagnosis and treatment. If there was a response to adenosine but it was not long lasting, an additional dose of 12 mg of adenosine intravenously can be attempted. Doses greater than 12 mg are not recommended. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active B lymphocyte proliferation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Germinal centre

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - From which of the following can niacin be synthesized in humans ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following can niacin be synthesized in humans

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tryptophan

      Explanation:

      Niacin, is also known as vitamin B3. The liver can synthesize niacin from the essential amino acid tryptophan, requiring 60 mg of tryptophan to make one mg of niacin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is a sympathetic neurotransmitter which increases the heart rate. During atrial fibrillation the atria is contracting at more than 200 beats/min. Acetylcholine is a parasympathetic neurotransmitter decreasing the heart rate. Digital also depresses the conduction at the AV conduction. Vagal discharge and occulocardiac reflux decrease the heart rate and convert the tachycardia into normal sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phospholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.Features of toxicityCoarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)HyperreflexiaAcute confusionSeizureComaManagementMild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal salineHaemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicitySodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - The following can cause steatorrhea except ...

    Incorrect

    • The following can cause steatorrhea except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diseases that destroy the endocrine portion of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Dietary fats and lipids are usually efficiently digested and over 90% absorbed. Impaired digestion or absorption can result in fatty stools. Possible causes include exocrine (not endocrine) pancreatic insufficiency, with poor digestion from lack of lipases, loss of bile salts, which reduces micelle formation, and small intestinal disease producing malabsorption. Various other causes including certain medicines that block fat absorption, or indigestible or excess oil/fat in diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Which of the following increase insulin secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following increase insulin secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfonylureas

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas are a type of antidiabetic drug used to treat diabetes mellitus type 2. Their main mechanism of action is producing a rise in plasma insulin levels, through stimulation of insulin secretion and a decrease in hepatic clearance of insulin. Sulfonylureas include gliclazide, glipizide, glibenclamide and glimepiride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High LDL

      Explanation:

      The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:

      • Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
      • Dyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)
      • Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2
      • Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Sinus bradycardia may be caused by disease of which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Sinus bradycardia may be caused by disease of which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Disease of the right coronary artery may cause sinus bradycardia and AV nodal block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 99 - The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brodmann area 44

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 100 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice. Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities. Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (4/4) 100%
Medicine (29/47) 62%
Neurology (5/9) 56%
Cardiovascular (9/13) 69%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (3/3) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
Passmed