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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old man is scheduled to start on interferon-alpha and ribavirin for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is scheduled to start on interferon-alpha and ribavirin for the treatment of hepatitis C. His past history includes intravenous drug usage. Which are the most common side effects of interferon-alpha?

      Your Answer: Flu-like symptoms and transient rise in ALT

      Correct Answer: Depression and flu-like symptoms

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects due to IFN-alpha have been described in almost every organ system. Many side-effects are clearly dose-dependent. Taken together, occurrence of flu-like symptoms, haematological toxicity, elevated transaminases, nausea, fatigue, and psychiatric sequelae are the most frequently encountered side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      170.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old male admitted with acute onset retrosternal chest pain was diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male admitted with acute onset retrosternal chest pain was diagnosed with unstable angina. Which of the following will mostly contribute to the acute risk stratification of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Troponin testing

      Explanation:

      Troponin testing is the most important investigation in risk stratification. Troponin positive patients should be referred for urgent coronary revascularization as troponin indicates cardiac cell damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
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  • Question 3 - A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils...

    Incorrect

    • A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error

      Explanation:

      The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25-0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.
      Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.
      Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.
      If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.
      Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager has the following blood result: Hgb=19. What hormone should you check?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      An increase in the patient’s haemoglobin tells us that the patient might be having an increased number of red blood cells. Smoking causes raised carboxyhaemoglobin levels and thus hypoxemia. Hypoxemia will increase the erythropoietin levels in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
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  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 4 months. He has developed a dermatitis and has noticed some loss of hair. Serum biochemistry shows a marginally raised glucose concentration and a lower alkaline phosphatase activity.

      Which of the following is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zinc deficiency

      Explanation:

      Zinc deficiency can present with alopecia, dermatitis, poor growth, increased susceptibility to infection, and cognitive deficiency. Magnesium deficiency can cause fatigue, cramping and an irregular EKG. Copper deficiency can present with fatigue and weakness. Chromium deficiency can present with hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which is intermittent and unpredictable in nature). When she swallows, food very suddenly 'sticks' in her chest. She is able to clear it when she drinks water, and then can finish the meal without any further incidence. A barium meal shows she has a corkscrew oesophagus. What is the most likely type of dysphagia here?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal spasm

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of uncoordinated irregular oesophageal peristalsis – this is characteristic of oesophageal spasm. The cork-screw oesophagus is also diagnostic of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - Concerning myosin, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning myosin, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myosin heavy chain mutations are associated with development of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Myosin is a protein found in contractile tissues. It is described in two groups: conventional myosin, which is arranged in pairs of light chains against pairs of heavy chain myosin. Unconventional myosin that is not arranged in filaments,  preforms many functions in a wide range of cells, such as in organelle transport and in endocytosis. Myosin contains Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and contains actin binding sites to preform its function. Other types of mutations in myosin can be seen besides the heavy chain mutation cardiomyopathy and they include: Carney’s complex , Usher syndrome and non-syndromic deafness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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