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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following pairing is correct:
Your Answer: Herpes simplex type I and primary genital herpes
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis
Explanation:Herpes simplex virus is likely the most common cause of Mollaret’s meningitis, and, in worse case scenarios, can lead to a potentially fatal case of herpes simplex encephalitis. The eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8 causes Kaposi’s sarcoma and Herpes simplex type 2 is responsible for most primary genital herpes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Pancreatic juice is usually?
Your Answer: Alkaline
Explanation:Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?
Your Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:- It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.- It is unimodal- The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).- Its density has two inflection points.- Its density is log-concave.The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via:
Your Answer: Tight junctions
Correct Answer: Desmosomes
Explanation:At the plasma membrane, some keratins interact with desmosomes (cell-cell adhesion) and hemidesmosomes (cell-matrix adhesion) via adapter proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?
Your Answer: All of the options
Correct Answer: Cortisol
Explanation:The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the heart?
Your Answer: It can be blocked by beta blockers
Explanation:Parasympathetic fibers do not innervate the Beta receptors on the heart. They are innervated by the sympathetic nerve fibers. Then a beta blocker such as propranolol will block the sympathetic outflow and increase the parasympathetic tone of the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?
Your Answer: Elastin
Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1
Explanation:A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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The basic taste “umami” is mediated by glutamate acting on a metabotropic receptor named:
Your Answer: mGluR4
Explanation:Umami taste or savoury taste is one of the five basic tastes described as meaty or brothy. Umami taste receptors typically respond to Glutamate. Biochemical studies have identified the taste receptors responsible for the sense of umami as modified forms of mGluR4, mGluR1 and taste receptor type 1 (T1R1), all of which have been found in all regions of the tongue bearing taste buds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to:
Your Answer: Increase in intracellular Ca2+
Explanation:The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility Is not due to ventricular filling. It occurs in isolated locations in the heart and is due to increase availability of intracellular calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following options best describes rheumatoid factor?
Your Answer: IgM against the Fc portion of IgM
Correct Answer: IgM against the Fc portion of IgG
Explanation:Rheumatoid factor is an IgM antibody that targets the Fc portion of IgG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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After exercise, O2 debt repay may take up to:
Your Answer: 90 min
Explanation:Physical activity or exercise requires oxygen for production of ATP or energy via aerobic pathways of energy production. When the amount of oxygen that reaches muscles depletes, cells start producing energy anaerobically by partial breakdown of glucose resulting in lactic acid. Lactic acid should be removed from cells as it causes muscle fatigue. Oxygen is needed to oxidize lactic acid in to carbon dioxide and water and this need is known as oxygen debt. The existence of an oxygen debt explains why we continue to breathe deeply and quickly for a while after exercise. This may take up from 60 – 90 mins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Correct
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Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?
Your Answer: Vestibulocerebellum
Explanation:The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Where are the baroreceptors of the great arteries located?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: In the adventitia
Explanation:Arterial baroreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses, and are formed by small nerve endings present in the adventitia of these vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by:
Your Answer: An increase in after load
Explanation:Cardiac oxygen consumption is directly related to the amount of tension that develops in the ventricles. It is increased by an increased size of heart, increased afterload, increased contractility and increased heart rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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Which is true of the citric acid cycle?
Your Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated
Explanation:The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the:
Your Answer: Left atrium
Correct Answer: Coronary sinus and anterior cardiac veins
Explanation:Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins which drain into the right atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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Which receptor type is associated with the inhibition of pancreatic endocrine secretion?
Your Answer: Α2
Explanation:The activation of alpha 2-adrenergic receptors in pancreatic beta-cells works by inhibiting the secretion of insulin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 19
Correct
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The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?
Your Answer: CN 5 to 8
Explanation:The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?
Your Answer: Ciliary body
Correct Answer: Canal of schlemm
Explanation:Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Heliotrope rash around external auditory meatus
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater?
Your Answer: The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct of Wirsung
Explanation:The ampulla of Vater, also known as the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the hepatopancreatic duct, is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct. The ampulla is specifically located at the major duodenal papilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache. His BP is 85/50 mm Hg. He has neck stiffness and photophobia. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: CT head
Explanation:In elderly patients, symptoms suggestive of meningitis could be due to an intracranial mass lesion (such as abscess, tumour or an intracerebral haematoma). Therefore elderly patients are increased risk of cerebral herniation from an LP. A CT head should be done before an LP to exclude a mass lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22 year old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Concerning protein digestion:
Your Answer: Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic ph of 3.2 to 5.6
Correct Answer: Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum
Explanation:Human pepsinogens can be divided into two immunochemically distinct groups: Pepsinogen I (PG I) and Pepsinogen II (PGII). PG I is secreted mainly by chief cells in the fundic mucosa whereas PGII is secreted by the pyloric glands and the proximal duodenal mucosa. Maximal acid secretion correlates with PG I. Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum/jejunum. Pepsin functions best in an acidic environment and specifically at a pH of 1.5 to 3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions is converted to:
Your Answer: Pyruvate
Explanation:Lactate can be used in two ways:Oxidation back to pyruvate by well-oxygenated muscle cells, heart cells, and brain cells. Pyruvate is then directly used to fuel the Krebs cycle orConversion to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver and release back into circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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Microtubule disassembly:
Your Answer: Occurs at the positive and negative end
Explanation:Dynamic instability refers to the coexistence of assembly and disassembly at the ends of a microtubule. The microtubule can dynamically switch between growing and shrinking phases in this region. Although both assembly and disassembly occur at both ends they occur preferentially at the (+) end.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:
Your Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.
Explanation:Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium that helps to initiate contraction?
Your Answer: Troponin c
Explanation:Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis
Explanation:Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?
Your Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which pair is correct concerning enteroendocrine cells in the GIT mucosa and their products?
Your Answer: I cells and gastrin
Correct Answer: D cells and somatostatin
Explanation:Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone is secreted form the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 33
Correct
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A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic with acute on chronic pain in his big toe. Past history is significant for hypertension for which he takes Bendroflumethiazide 5mg daily. Examination reveals an erythematous, red hot metatarsophalangeal joint that has a knobbly appearance. X-ray shows punched out bony cysts. Which of the following would be the most appropriate long term management for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop Bendroflumethiazide and substitute a calcium antagonist
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is chronic tophaceous gout, which is classically associated with chronic renal impairment or long term diuretic therapy. There is tophus formation due to urate crystal deposition in and around the joint. These tophi can also form in the bones and soft tissues. Renal manifestations with uric acid include nephrolithiasis and uric acid nephropathy. Whenever there is an acute on chronic attack of gout, the inciting cause must be established and in case of diuretic use, they should be immediately replaced with another medication. Allopurinol is never started during an acute episode. it is first allowed to settle before administration of allopurinol. Although dietary restriction must be observed in people with a propensity of gout, this scenario clearly presents diuretics as the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1?
Your Answer: Brown fat
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:The liver produces an important amount of T3 by outer ring deiodination thanks to its elevated concentration of type I deiodinase. It can also be found in the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?
Your Answer: Increased endogenous production of uric acid
Correct Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid
Explanation:Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance?
Your Answer: Hydroxyl reductase
Correct Answer: Antioxidants
Explanation:Unlike superoxide, which can be detoxified by superoxide dismutase, the hydroxyl radical cannot be eliminated by an enzymatic reaction but it is believed can be counteracted by antioxidants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 37
Correct
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Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle?
Your Answer: Striated and involuntary
Explanation:Cardiac muscle (heart muscle) is an involuntary, striated muscle that is found in the walls and histological foundation of the heart, specifically the myocardium. Cardiac muscle is one of three major types of muscle, the others being skeletal and smooth muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2 weeks that has not responded to antibiotics. Lately he has developed an onset of new range of symptoms that are linked to his HLA B27 positivity. Which of the following signs is not related to Reiter's syndrome?
Your Answer: A well demarcated rash on the penis with serpiginous edges
Correct Answer: A mild fever with a generalised macular rash
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. Dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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The liver is the principal site for?
Your Answer: Storage of iron
Explanation:The liver mainly synthesizes proteins including albumin, globulins and coalgulative factors. Vitamin B12 is taken in via the diet and stored by the liver. Vitamin C is not stored and excessive vitamin C is excreted via urine. Liver is the main site of iron storage, where it is stored in the form of ferritin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 40
Correct
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A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?
Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione
Explanation:N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.Paracetamol overdose:The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Calcium needed for cardiac muscle contraction is made available during which phase of the action potential?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:It is made available during the plateau phase of the action potential i.e. phase 2. During the plateau phase of the action potential, Calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 42
Correct
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Where is thyroglobulin produced?
Your Answer: Thyrocytes
Explanation:Thyroglobulin, or Tg, is a protein that functions as the precursor to thyroid hormones. It is synthesized by thyrocytes and then secreted into the colloid. It also functions as a negative-feedback regulator of thyroid hormone biosynthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?
Your Answer: It is not very sensitive
Correct Answer: Floor and ceiling effects
Explanation:Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?
Your Answer: Sexual transmission
Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission
Explanation:The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase in serum cortisol levels?
Your Answer: Severe emotional stress
Explanation:Cortisol is widely known as the stress hormone. Alterations in cortisol levels have been found in relation to mood disorders, illness, trauma, pain, fear, exertion, and anxiety, amongst other stimuli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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Increase Gamma motor neuron activity produces what effect on the muscle spindle sensitivity?
Your Answer: Increase
Explanation:The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is via gamma motor neurons. These neurons also play a role in adjusting the sensitivity of muscle spindles. Increased neuron activity increases the muscle spindle sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: None of these
Explanation:There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A. Recovery from symptoms following infection may be slow and may take several weeks or months. The hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention and appears to be effective for life.Acute hepatitis B infection does not usually require treatment and most adults clear the infection spontaneously. Early antiviral treatment may be required in fewer than 1% of people, whose infection takes a very aggressive course (fulminant hepatitis) or who are immunocompromised. Although none of the available drugs can clear the infection, they can stop the virus from replicating, thus minimizing liver damage.There is no specific treatment for measles. Most people with uncomplicated measles will recover with rest and supportive treatment. In developed countries, children are immunized against measles at 12 months, generally as part of a three-part MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, and rubella). The vaccination is generally not given before this age because such infants respond inadequately to the vaccine due to an immature immune system. Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly, generally within 10 days of infection. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends people receive one dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) and four doses of rabies vaccine over a 14-day period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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The onset of puberty is triggered by
Your Answer: Increased conversion of testosterone to dht by 5α reductase type ii (males)
Correct Answer: Increase in pulsatile GNRH secretion from hypothalamus
Explanation:The onset of puberty is associated with high GNRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones. Brain tumours which increase GNRH output may also lead to premature puberty. The cause of the GNRH rise is unknown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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On which presynaptic receptor does noradrenalin act to inhibit noradrenalin secretion?
Your Answer: Β2 receptor
Correct Answer: Α2 receptor
Explanation:Adregenic receptors are A1, A2, B1, B2, B3. Out of these, the function of the A2 receptor is inhibition of transmitter release including nor adrenalin and acetylcholine of the autonomic nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the following group of nerves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CN III, IV, V1, VI
Explanation:The superior and inferior divisions of oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of ophthalmic V1 and the abducens nerve (VI)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
