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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). She remains on PPI therapy but continues to have epigastric discomfort. You suspect she has ongoing H. pylori infection and request a urea breath test to investigate this.
How long would the patient need to stop her PPI therapy before the urea breath test?Your Answer: 7 days
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:PPI will affect the accuracy of the test. In general, most recommend discontinuing PPI therapy for 2 weeks prior to a urea breath test. PPI’s have an anti-H. pylori effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old male underwent a partial gastrectomy 15 years ago for a complicated peptic ulcer. Which of the following elements may be deficient in this man?
Your Answer: Nicotinic acid
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:The proper gastric acidity is required to transform iron from ferric to ferrous state in order to be absorbable. Even partial gastrectomy may cause dumping syndrome. Malabsorption is rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Cholecystokinin is secreted from:
Your Answer: D cells in the pancreas
Correct Answer: I cells in upper small intestine
Explanation:Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which among these medications does NOT cause gastric ulceration?
Your Answer: Celecoxib
Correct Answer: Misoprostol
Explanation:Misoprostol is effective in preventing gastric ulceration since it is a prostaglandin analogue. Celecoxib, being a selective COX-2 inhibitor only elevates risk of ulceration as well as NSAIDs. Renal failure on the other hand results in elevated gastric acid after reducing the breakdown of gastrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female, with 5 day history of fever and pain in the right iliac fossa, presented with acute abdominal pain and rigidity. Past medical, surgical and drug history were unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Perforated Meckel's diverticulum
Correct Answer: Perforated diverticulum
Explanation:A diverticulum is a sac like protrusion from the colonic wall. Inflammation leads to diverticulitis characterised by abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In complicated cases. It may lead to perforation, leading to abdominal tenderness, rigidity and guarding. Ischemic colitis presents with sudden onset abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. Intussusception leads to abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and signs of intestinal obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and flatulence. Clinical examination is unremarkable. Faecal occult bloods are negative and haematological and biochemical investigations are unremarkable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet
Explanation:The best next step is to try a dairy-free diet, many patients may develop this in their lifetime. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and one would need to rule lactose intolerance out as a potential aetiology first. She is only 28, and without overt bleeding or signs/sxs/labs suggestive of obstruction or inflammation; colonoscopy, flex sig and a barium enema are not indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Whipple's disease
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:Hereditary non-polyposis syndrome (HNPCC) is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer. It often presents in younger and younger generations down a family. FAP presents with 100’s-1000’s of polyps and is less common. Li-Fraumeni syndrome and Fanconi syndrome are rare. For Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, the thing you will look for in the question stem is discoloured spots on the lips, this is classic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam and sigmoidoscopy showed an ulcer. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion. Celiac disease is not usually associated with bleeding per rectum and it is associated with a reaction to products containing gliadin. Crohn’s disease and UC are inflammatory bowel diseases and on endoscopy, show many other features of inflammation and not just a single ulcer. A patient with IBS will also have bloating and intermittent diarrhoea with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of insulinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low fasting glucose, high insulin, high C peptide
Explanation:Insulinoma is associated with LOW fasting glucose, HIGH insulin level, and HIGH C peptide. Insulin-abuse or overdose will cause HGH insulin levels and a LOW C peptide. If the C peptide is low, be suspicious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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From the list of options, choose the least useful therapy in preventing oesophageal variceal bleeding in portal hypertension.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variceal sclerotherapy
Explanation:Selective beta blockade and nitrates help to reduce portal pressure and therefore reduce the risk of bleeding (as does banding). Moreover, sclerotherapy, despite its use, has not actually been shown to reduce the risk of bleedings as primary prevention – however, it may reduce the risk of rebleeding after an index bleed. The mortality of variceal bleedings is known to be 50% at each episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amino acids
Explanation:Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests show the following:
Hb 13.4 g/dl
Platelets 467 * 109/l
WBC 8.2 * 109/l
CRP 89 mg/l
A diagnosis of ulcerative colitis is suspected. Which part of the bowel is most likely to be affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectum
Explanation:The most COMMON site of inflammation from ulcerative colitis is the rectum, making this the correct answer. This is simply a fact you need to memorize. In general, ulcerative colitis only occurs in colorectal regions– nothing in the small bowel (unless there is backwash into the terminal ileum) and nothing further up the GI tract. In Crohn’s it can affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man with diabetes is referred with abnormal liver biochemistry. Which of the following is in keeping with a diagnosis of haemochromatosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation 78% (20-50)
Explanation:A high transferrin saturation is seen in hemochromatosis, as well as a high iron level (>30), a high ferritin level, and a LOW TIBC (<20). Think of it like the opposite findings of iron deficiency anaemia which is a low iron, low ferritin, high TIBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. Her inflammatory markers are normal. What is the most likely cause of her diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bile Acid Malabsorption
Explanation:The question describes a patient who has had an ileal resection. Bile acids are reabsorbed in the distal ileum. Since this has been resected in this patient, one would expect her to have malabsorption of bile acids, causing her diarrhoea. This is a more likely correct answer than a Crohn’s flare, bacterial overgrowth, gastroenteritis, or tropical sprue, given the details included in the question prompt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 hours after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.
Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this acute attack of vomiting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staph. aureus is the most likely cause. It is found in foods like dairy products, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable ENDOTOXIN (remember this) that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea 1-6 hours after ingestion of contaminated food. B. cereus is classically associated with fried rice being reheated. Salmonella is typical with raw eggs and undercooked poultry. Campylobacter which is most commonly associated with food poisoning, is seen with poultry 50% of the time. Yersinia enterocolitica is seen with raw or undercooked pork, and may be a case presenting with mesenteric adenitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman has ingested an unknown quantity of paracetamol tablets four hours ago. She now presents with nausea, vomiting, anorexia and right subchondral pain.
Which of the following features suggest that she should be transferred to the liver unit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH 7.25
Explanation:The most widely used prognostic predictors for acetaminophen over-ingestion is King’s College Criteria, which is: arterial PH < 7.3 after fluid resuscitation, Cr level > 3.4, PT > 1.8x control or > 100s, or INR > 6.5, and Grave III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced serum caeruloplasmin
Explanation:In Wilson’s disease, serum caeruloplasmin is decreased. Skin pigmentation is not increased, but may become jaundiced. 24 hour urine copper excretion is increased. Hepatic copper concentration is increased. Serum copper level is also increased. Key point: high copper. Remember Kayser-Fleisher rings for the eyes in Wilson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Barrett's oesophagus is well recognized as a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What is the pathological change that occurs in the above condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous to columnar epithelium
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is characterised by the metaplastic replacement of the normal squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus by columnar epithelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified.
Investigations reveal:
Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l
Bilirubin 78 μmol/l
Albumin 41g/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. She was given lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days.
Which of the following is the most appropriate way of determining the successful eradication of H. pylori?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Urea breath test is the most sensitive test to determine if there has been RESOLUTION/ERADICATION of the infection with H. pylori. The best test for initial diagnosis would be EGD with biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young woman complains of constipation and pain on defecation. The pain is anorectal and a digital rectal examination was impossible due to pain and spasm. What is most likely the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:Symptoms of anal fissure include sharp pain in the anal area upon defecation or anal stimulation. It may also cause burning or itching as well as visible fresh blood on the stools or on the toilet paper. It is usually visible upon inspection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of diarrhoea as well as abdominal discomfort. He has 10 episodes of loose stools per day and 3 episodes of loose stools per night. He reports weight loss in the past few months. On examination of the abdomen, tenderness was present in the right lower quadrant. Endoscopy revealed cobblestone mucosa in the ileum. Which of the following conditions is he most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's Disease
Explanation:Cobblestone mucosa is characteristic of Crohn’s Disease. It is not a feature of any of the other options mentioned. Crohn’s disease is a condition of IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is having profuse melaena. He was commenced on dabigatran 150mg bd by the cardiologists 48 hours earlier for non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Following appropriate resuscitation which of the following treatments is most likely to improve his bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
Explanation:Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a newer antidote for dabigatran, the first of its kind. It is a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatrin with a higher affinity than thrombin. It is very expensive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Deposition of macrophages containing PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff) granules were found in a jejunal biopsy of a 45-year-old man complaining of indigestion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whipple's disease
Explanation:Whipple’s disease is a rare, systemic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Tropheryma whipplei. It primarily causes malabsorption but may affect any part of the body including the heart, brain, joints, skin, lungs and the eyes. Weight loss, diarrhoea, joint pain, and arthritis are common presenting symptoms, but the presentation can be highly variable and approximately 15% of patients do not have these classic signs and symptoms. Whipple’s disease is significantly more common in men, with 87% of the patients being male. Diagnosis is made by biopsy, usually by duodenal endoscopy, which reveals PAS-positive (periodic acid schiff) macrophages in the lamina propria containing non-acid-fast gram-positive bacilli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation, blood on the side of stool and extremely painful defecation. Digital rectal examination also results in pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:An anal fissure is a longitudinal tear of the perianal skin distal to the dentate line, often due to increased anal sphincter tone. Anal fissures are classified according to aetiology (e.g., trauma or underlying disease) or duration of disease (e.g., acute or chronic). They are typically very painful and may present with bright red blood per rectum (haematochezia). Anal fissures are a clinical diagnosis based on history and examination findings. Management is primarily conservative, and includes stool softeners, analgesia, and possible local muscle relaxation; because of the risk of incontinence, surgical intervention is a last resort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relieved by food
Explanation:Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal.
Which of the following options would be the best for further management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology
Explanation:Again, remember the Hepatitis B serologies: In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, + anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. IN THIS CASE, the person is HBsAg+ for 6 months and everything else is negative, normal transaminase. They do not need antiviral therapy, but their serology should be monitored serially. There would be no reason to do a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic complaining of passing faeces per urethra. Cystoscopy confirms a fistula between his bladder and bowel.
Which treatment is most likely to be effective?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: surgery
Explanation:The best treatment for a colovesicular fistula is surgery. This is the only definitive treatment. If the patient is a poor surgical candidate, there can be an attempt to manage them non-operatively, but this is absolutely NOT the MOST EFFECTIVE therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain on swallowing. Current medication includes a salbutamol and becotide inhaler, bendrofluazide and amlodipine. What is the most likely cause of the presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:The history gives you a woman who is on inhaled steroid therapy. It is always a good idea for patients to rinse their mouths well after using inhaled steroids. Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) is a symptom of oesophageal candidiasis, which is the most likely answer given the steroids. Typically, you might see this in someone who is immunocompromised (classically, in HIV+ patients).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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