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  • Question 1 - Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately:

      Your Answer: -90mv

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential of the mammalian heart is about -90 mv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 81 year old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical...

    Correct

    • An 81 year old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical examination reveals left hemiparesis. How would you classify this hemiparesis based on the WHO International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health?

      Your Answer: Impairment of body function

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and signs are classified as ‘impairment of body function’. The types of impairment classified as ‘activity limitation’ include difficulties that a patient may have in executing certain activities. The type of impairment classified as ‘participation restriction’ are problems a patient may have in social roles. The type of impairment classified as ‘pathology’ would be the diagnosis/disease. Right total anterior circulation infarct relates to the Oxford Bamford classification for stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to: ...

    Incorrect

    • The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to:

      Your Answer: Increased ventricular filling

      Correct Answer: Increase in intracellular Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility Is not due to ventricular filling. It occurs in isolated locations in the heart and is due to increase availability of intracellular calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      108.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate?

      Your Answer: Yeast

      Correct Answer: Yellow vegetables

      Explanation:

      Folate naturally occurs in a wide variety of foods, including vegetables (particularly dark green leafy vegetables), fruits and fruit juices, nuts, beans, peas, dairy products, poultry and meat, eggs, seafood, grains, and some beers. Avocado, beetroot, spinach, liver, yeast, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts are among the foods with the highest levels of folate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute:

      Your Answer: Cuboidal

      Correct Answer: Simple squamous

      Explanation:

      The single layer of squamous epithelium lining the heart and blood vessels is known as the endothelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: Is present when the iron in the haemoglobin is in the Fe2+ state

      Correct Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?

      Your Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Explanation:
      1. Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
      2. Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.

      The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:

      • Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
      • Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
      • 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
      • Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer: Flexural surface rheumatoid nodules

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Thiazide

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer: A branch of the anterior interventricular artery

      Correct Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer: Uptake of iodide across the basolateral membrane into the thyrocyte

      Correct Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen...

    Incorrect

    • Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen is by

      Your Answer: Cholesterol esterase

      Correct Answer: Trypsin

      Explanation:

      The enzyme trypsin exists in pancreatic juice in the inactive form trypsinogen, it is activated by the intestinal enterokinase in intestinal juice. Trypsin can then activate other protease enzymes and catalyse the reaction pro-colipase → colipase. Colipase is necessary, along with bile salts, to enable lipase function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the heart?

      Your Answer: It affects muscarinic receptors

      Correct Answer: It can be blocked by beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic fibers do not innervate the Beta receptors on the heart. They are innervated by the sympathetic nerve fibers. Then a beta blocker such as propranolol will block the sympathetic outflow and increase the parasympathetic tone of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer: Inversion

      Correct Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Iron absorption occurs primarily in which part of the GIT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Iron absorption occurs primarily in which part of the GIT?

      Your Answer: Terminal ileum

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Like most mineral nutrients, the majority of the iron absorbed from digested food or supplements is absorbed in the duodenum by enterocytes of the duodenal lining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a macrophage?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia act as the macrophages of the central nervous system, and they contribute to innate and adaptive immune responses. Studies have shown that microglial cells recognize monocyte antigens, and there are similarities between them that demonstrate that they originate from these monocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Normal stroke volume is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal stroke volume is about:

      Your Answer: 100 ml

      Correct Answer: 70 ml

      Explanation:

      Stroke volume is the amount of blood that is pumped from the heart into the aorta. It is typically 70 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where are the baroreceptors of the great arteries located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the baroreceptors of the great arteries located?

      Your Answer: In the endothelium

      Correct Answer: In the adventitia

      Explanation:

      Arterial baroreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses, and are formed by small nerve endings present in the adventitia of these vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Correct

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA...

    Incorrect

    • In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:

      Your Answer: Electroporation

      Correct Answer: Insertion

      Explanation:

      Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer: SGLT2

      Correct Answer: SGLT1

      Explanation:

      SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Correct Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body)...

    Correct

    • The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body) per unit time is = (the arterial level - the venous level) * the blood flow. This statement describes?

      Your Answer: The Fick principle

      Explanation:

      The essence of the Fick principle is that blood flow to an organ can be calculated using a marker substance if the following information is known:- Amount of marker substance taken up by the organ per unit time- Concentration of marker substance in arterial blood supplying the organ- Concentration of marker substance in venous blood leaving the organ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following causes an increase in venous return? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?

      Your Answer: Standing position

      Correct Answer: An increase in the negative intra-thoracic pressure

      Explanation:

      During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure becomes more negative and intra-abdominal pressure more positive. This increases the venous pressure gradient from abdomen to thorax and promotes filling of the central veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged...

    Incorrect

    • The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged as follows:

      Your Answer: External granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, molecular, multiform

      Correct Answer: Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform

      Explanation:

      The layers of neocortex from outermost to innermost include: the molecular, external granular layer, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal and multiform layer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: QT interval on ECG

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      29.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/9) 22%
Medicine (9/30) 30%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/3) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Genetics (0/3) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Passmed