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Question 1
Incorrect
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Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.
Your Answer: Linear regression
Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test
Explanation:The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 2
Correct
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In terms of relative steroid potency, how much prednisone is equivalent to 100mg hydrocortisone?
Your Answer: 25mg
Explanation:Different corticosteroids have varying degrees of potency. 1 mg of prednisone is equivalent to 4 mg of hydrocortisone. Therefore, 25 mg of prednisone are equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:
Your Answer: Nucleotides
Correct Answer: Base pairs
Explanation:As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound?
Your Answer: Ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle in atrial systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:
Your Answer: I and V
Explanation:Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The ability of the SA node cells to allow ionic flow through channels activated in a hyperpolarized state is known as:
Your Answer: Non of the above
Correct Answer: Pace maker potential
Explanation:Rhythmically discharging cells have a membrane potential that, after each impulse, declines to the firing level. Thus this prepotential or Pacemaker potential triggers the next impulse. The inherent leakiness of the sinus nodal fibers to Na+ and Ca2+ causes their self excitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb
Explanation:The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The conversion of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate is catalysed by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fructokinase
Explanation:The first step in the metabolism of fructose is the phosphorylation of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate by fructokinase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Where in the gastrointestinal tract are valvulae conniventes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:The circular folds (valves of Kerckring or valvulae conniventes) are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm.Which of the following features do not suggest malignant change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in size
Explanation:Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: N saline should be started iv
Explanation:- Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
- Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.
The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:
- Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
- Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
- 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
- Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following groups are purines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenine, guanine, hypoxanthine
Explanation:There are many naturally occurring purines. They include the nucleobases, adenine and guanine. Other notable purines are hypoxanthine, xanthine), theobromine, caffeine, uric acid and isoguanine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Inhibition of cell division at the end of G1 occurs through:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unphosphorolated retinoblastoma protein (uRb)
Explanation:A cell’s decision to enter, or re-enter, the cell cycle is made before S-phase in G1 at what is known as the restriction point, and is determined by the combination of promotional and inhibitory extracellular signals that are received and processed. Ultimately unphosphorylated Rb acts as an inhibitor of G1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right and left gastro-epiploic arteries
Explanation:The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the left and the right gastro-epiploic arteries branching from the splenic artery near the hilum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Action potential
Explanation:This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Compact/cortical bone makes up
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body
Explanation:Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopy
Explanation:Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary active transport
Explanation:Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are resorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvis
Explanation:The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following has the shortest duration:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial systole
Explanation:Atrial systole: 0.1s
Atrial diastole: around 0.4s
Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s
Ventricular systole: 0.27s
PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CN X
Explanation:Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill
Explanation:The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following pairing is correct:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis
Explanation:Herpes simplex virus is likely the most common cause of Mollaret’s meningitis, and, in worse case scenarios, can lead to a potentially fatal case of herpes simplex encephalitis. The eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8 causes Kaposi’s sarcoma and Herpes simplex type 2 is responsible for most primary genital herpes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the primary problem of achalasia
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart sound?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Second heart sound (S2) forms the dub of lub-dub and is composed of components A2 and P2. • loud: hypertension• soft: AS• fixed split: physiological split (normally occurs during inhalation), right bundle branch block, pulmonary stenosis, and atrial septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Absolute refractory period in a cardiac action potential graph occurs during.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Absolute refractory period (ARP): the cell is completely unexcitable to a new stimulus and occurs from phase 0 – 2 i.e. depolarisation, early repolarisation and plateau phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead. What dose of prednisolone should be started?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 mg
Explanation:1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination
Explanation:Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
