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  • Question 1 - A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a 6cm x 5cm cystic mass of the right ovary with multiple septa noted and varying degrees of echogenicity within locules. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of the mucinous cystic adenoma of the ovaries is the presence of a large tumour which is multicystic and the penetration of the peritoneum into the cavities forming septas. The serous tumours can only be differentiated on the bases of the contents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

      Your Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

      Explanation:

      Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:

      Your Answer: Basal body temperature drop at least 5°C in the second half of the cycle

      Correct Answer: Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Ovulation in the menstrual cycle usually occurs over 4 days. There is an increase in basal body temperature at the time of ovulation due to the effect of progesterone.

      A high Day 21 progesterone level indicates ovulation and the release of an egg.

      Dysmenorrhea is described as painful menstruation. The symptoms start at the time of ovulation and persist till menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is meant by a barr body? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by a barr body?

      Your Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with presentation of chicken pox rashes which started 2 days ago. Varicella IgM came back positive with negative IgG.

      What is the most appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Antiviral therapy

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and arranged a detailed fetal ultrasound 5 weeks later

      Explanation:

      Varicella or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by primary infection with varicella-zoster virus (VZV) which can result in maternal mortality or serious morbidity. The virus which remains dormant in the sensory nerve root ganglia following a primary infection can get reactivated to cause a vesicular erythematous skin rash along the dermatomal distribution known as herpes zoster, ‘zoster’ or ‘shingles’. Though rare the risk of acquiring infection from an immunocompetent individual with herpes zoster in non-exposed sites like thoracolumbar regions can also occur. As the viral shedding will be greater, a disseminated zoster or exposed zoster (e.g. ophthalmic) in an individual or localised zoster in an immunosuppressed patient should be considered very infectious.

      In industrialised countries, over 85 % of women in childbearing age are immune to varicella zoster virus (VZV), however, women from tropical and subtropical areas are more susceptible to chickenpox in pregnancy as they are more likely to be seronegative for VZV IgG. Up to 10% cases of VZV in pregnancy are complicated with Varicella pneumonia, whereas perinatal varicella/ chickenpox carries a 20 to 30 % risk of transmitting infection to the neonate. Studies on maternal varicella infection from 12-28 weeks gestation suggests a 1.4% risk of fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) whose subsequent abnormalities include:
      – Skin scarring (78%)
      – Eye abnormalities (60%)
      – Limb abnormalities (68%)
      – Prematurity and low birthweight (50%)
      – Cortical atrophy, intellectual disability (46%)
      – Poor sphincter control (32%)
      – Early death (29%)

      In the case mentioned above, patient had developed chickenpox rashes in her 2nd trimester and presented to you at day 2 of illness. Her varicella IgM came back positive along with a negative IgG indicating that she is not being immunized and that she is currently having active varicella infection. The best management in this case will be to reassured and allowed patient to be monitored at home. As there is no underlying lung disease, she is not immunocompromised and she is a non-smoker, so antiviral therapy is not required.

      Generally, for pregnant women with chickenpox if they present within 24 hours of onset of rash and are in 20+0 weeks of gestation or beyond oral aciclovir should be prescribed. However, the use of acyclovir before 20+0 weeks should be considered carefully as Aciclovir is rated category B3 (Pregnancy and Breastfeeding, eTG, January 2003, ISSN 1447-1868) and should only be prescribed if its potential benefits outweigh the potential risks caused to the fetus, with informed consent in pregnant women who present within 24 hours of onset of varicella rash. If the patient is immunocompromised or if there are respiratory symptoms, a haemorrhagic rash or persistent fever for more than six days it is advisable to use intravenous acyclovir. On the other hand, to prevent secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, symptomatic treatment and hygiene should also be advised and unless there is significant superimposed bacterial infection antibiotics are not required.

      If the pregnant woman has had a significant exposure to chickenpox or shingles, and is not immune to VZV , she should be offered VZIG as soon as possible or at the very latest within 10 days of the exposure. However, since Varicella zoster immunoglobulins (VZIG) has no therapeutic benefit in already developed cases of chickenpox, it should not be given to the context patient who have already developed active rashes of chickenpox with serology showing positive IgM positive and negative IgG indicating primary infection.

      At least five weeks after primary infection a detailed fetal ultrasound must be done checking for any anomalies and ultrasounds should be repeated until delivery; and consider a fetal MRI if any abnormalities are found. In cases were if ultrasound is found to be normal, VZV fetal serology and amniocentesis are not useful and is not routinely advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The resting pulse in pregnancy is: ...

    Correct

    • The resting pulse in pregnancy is:

      Your Answer: Increased by 10 to 15 bpm

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy cardiac output increases by 30 to 50%. As a result, the resting pulse speeds up from a normal of about 70 bpm to 80 or 90 bpm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: T12,L1

      Correct Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.

    She is at 40 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.

      She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements.

      On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min.

      On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive.

      On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced.

      She is reassured and allowed to return home.

      24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history.

      What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan of the foetus.

      Correct Answer: Admit for induction of labour.

      Explanation:

      Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.

      Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.

      Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.

      Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.

      Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Correct

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes. What is the likelihood of spontaneous labour starting within 24 hours?

      Your Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 0 to 41 6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 0 and 36 6 weeks. 60% of the women will go into labour with in 24 hours in PPROM. After 24 hours have past without any contraction and the gestation age is more than 34 week than prostaglandins can be used to augment labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The testicular arteries are branches of what? ...

    Incorrect

    • The testicular arteries are branches of what?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal artery

      Correct Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The testicular artery arises from the aorta and supplies the testis and the epididymis. The testis is supplied by 3 arteries.: Testicular artery, cremasteric artery that arises from the inferior hypogastric artery and the artery to the vas deferens from the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: She should continue the same oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg

      Explanation:

      Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:

      Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
      Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
      If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
      Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparation

      All other options are not acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct?

      Your Answer: Can be measured during labour

      Explanation:

      A sample for fetal blood pH can be taken during the labour. The mother should be lying in a left lateral position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist?

      Your Answer: Atosiban

      Explanation:

      Atosiban is a modified form of oxytocin that is administered by intravenous infusion for 2–48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her symptoms started after laparoscopic filshie clip sterilization was performed 3 years ago. She has three children aged eleven, seven, and six years.  Her periods used to last 10 days before she was sterilized because she didn't use any form of contraception. Her periods lasted only four days when she was on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP), which was the case right before the sterilization. At the time of sterilization, a hysteroscopic check revealed a normal uterine cavity, and no abnormalities were found during the laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

      Explanation:

      Although a dilatation and curettage (D&C) is frequently recommended as part of a woman’s menorrhagia examination.
      D&C is not indicated in a woman who had a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy only two years ago, and who experienced comparable symptoms when not taking the OCP in the past, especially after the age of 40.
      The Filshie clips should not be removed because they will not improve the symptoms.

      Although an endometrial ablation or possibly a hysterectomy may be required in the future to address the symptoms, the first line of treatment should be a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which will reduce the loss in up to half of the women treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Turner's syndrome is characterised by : ...

    Incorrect

    • Turner's syndrome is characterised by :

      Your Answer: The ovaries are multicystic

      Correct Answer: Streak ovaries

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest: ...

    Incorrect

    • Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest:

      Your Answer: Just after the delivery of the infant

      Correct Answer: On the 3rd to 4th day postpartum

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is necessary for the secretion of milk by the cells of the alveoli. The level of prolactin in the blood increases markedly during pregnancy, and stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue, in preparation for the production of milk. However, milk is not secreted then, because progesterone and oestrogen, the hormones of pregnancy, block this action of prolactin. After delivery, levels of progesterone and oestrogen fall rapidly, prolactin is no longer blocked, and milk secretion begins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:...

    Correct

    • The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:

      Your Answer: Crown rump length

      Explanation:

      Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell.

      Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods.

      She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today.

      On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C

      Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination.

      There is no evidence of a pelvic mass.

      Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina.

      From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Curettage after twelve hours of antibiotic therapy.

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.

      Explanation:

      This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.

      The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.

      The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).

      If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.

      However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.

      Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Correct

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/5) 60%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Clinical Management (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Passmed