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  • Question 1 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Correct

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      41.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - In both innate and humoral immunity, receptors involved recognize: ...

    Incorrect

    • In both innate and humoral immunity, receptors involved recognize:

      Your Answer: The shape and the size of the antigen

      Correct Answer: The shape of the antigen

      Explanation:

      Antigen receptors recognize the shape of the antigen. They identify specific epitopes and are found on T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      47.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - The heart rate can be accelerated by: ...

    Correct

    • The heart rate can be accelerated by:

      Your Answer: Exercise and thyroid hormones

      Explanation:

      The firing of the SA node will increase due to exercises and as the thyroid hormone has a chronotropic effect on the heart, it too will result in an increase in the heart rate via stimulation of the adrenergic receptors of the heart. As during exercise the sympathetic nervous system is activated, it will directly have an positive chronotropic effect on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      34.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by: ...

    Correct

    • Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by:

      Your Answer: Annulus fibrosus

      Explanation:

      The annulus fibrosus disconnects the syncytium complex. The atria are rapidly activated however the activation peters out when the insulating layer-the annulus fibrosus-is reached.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      45.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain...

    Correct

    • Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain following which environmental conditions?

      Your Answer: Pineal gland, darkness

      Explanation:

      Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland located in the midline attached to the posterior roof of the third ventricle in the brain. Melatonin affects circadian rhythm in the body or the sleep wake cycle. The precursor to melatonin is serotonin and the rate limiting enzyme that converts serotonin to melatonin is low during the day time and reaches its peak during the night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22.7
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Coronary arteries arise from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Coronary arteries arise from?

      Your Answer: Ascending aorta

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries arise from the sinuses behind 2 of the cusps of the aortic valve at the root of aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.3
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are the emboliform and globose nuclei in the paravermis

      Explanation:

      The interposed nuclei are a part of deep cerebellar complex and are composed of the globose nucleus and the emboliform nucleus. It receives afferent fibers from the anterior lobe of the cerebellum and sends output via the superior cerebellar peduncle to the red nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - An effect of aging on the kidney includes? ...

    Incorrect

    • An effect of aging on the kidney includes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      The normal range of GFR, adjusted for body surface area, is 100 to 130 mL/min/1.73m2 in men and 90 to 120 ml/min/1.73m2 in women younger than the age of 40. After age 40, GFR decreases progressively with age, by about 0.4 mL/min to 1.2 mL/min per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Telomeres are best described as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomeres are best described as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A repetitive DNA sequence at the end of a DNA molecule.

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gated Na channels open allowing the influx of Na

      Explanation:

      Generation of an action potential in response to a stimulus is a result of a previously maintained resting membrane potential (RMP). Generation of resting membrane potential is mediated mainly by potassium ions. Several membrane proteins maintain RMP by transport of ions in and out of cell. Na+/K+ ATPase pump maintains a concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions. Na+ concentration in extracellular fluid is higher compared to intracellular fluid and K+ ion concentration is higher intracellularly. Generation of an action potential facilitates opening of Na+ ion channels which allow for Na+ to diffuse inside the cell according to the concentration gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - After eating a meal containing a moderate amount of fat, which percentage of...

    Incorrect

    • After eating a meal containing a moderate amount of fat, which percentage of fat is likely to be absorbed from the GIT in an adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      About 95% of dietary fat is absorbed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep...

    Incorrect

    • A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90 min

      Explanation:

      A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:...

    Incorrect

    • Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: I and V

      Explanation:

      Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dendric cells

      Explanation:

      Only professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, B lymphocytes, and dendritic cells) are able to activate a resting helper T-cell when the matching antigen is presented. However, macrophages and B cells can only activate memory T cells whereas dendritic cells can activate both memory and naive T cells, and are the most potent of all the antigen-presenting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.Other options:Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.Adverse effects:Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Select the correct statement regarding the macro anatomy of the thyroid gland. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding the macro anatomy of the thyroid gland.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It surrounds the trachea at the front of the neck.

      Explanation:

      The thyroid is located around the trachea, in the anterior portion of the neck. It is formed by two lobes which are connected by an isthmus. The presence of a pyramidal lobe, or third lobe, is considered to be a normal anatomical variant. It originates from the primitive pharynx and the neural crest and has a rich vascular supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:- Idiopathic- Trauma, excessive manicuring- Infection: especially fungal- Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis- Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s- Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda- Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).- Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to? ...

    Incorrect

    • The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase in the myocardium

      Explanation:

      Digitalis compounds are potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase. This ion transport system moves sodium ions out of the cell and brings potassium ions into the cell. By inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, cardiac glycosides cause the intracellular sodium concentration to increase. This then leads to an accumulation of intracellular calcium via the Na+/Ca++ exchange system. In the heart, increased intracellular calcium causes more calcium to be released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C, which increases contractility (inotropy).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent back pain that is unrelated to activity for the past several months. Laboratory findings show :WCC: 6.7 x 109/l (5.4 neutrophils, 1.2 lymphocytes and 0.2 monocytes)Haemoglobin: 11.2 g/dlhaematocrit: 33.3%MCV: 88 flPlatelet count: 89 x 109/l.The biochemistry shows:sodium 144 mmol/lpotassium 4.5 mmol/lchloride 100 mmol/lbicarbonate 26 mmol/lurea 14 mmol/lcreatinine 90 μmol/la glucose of 5.4 mmol/l.A CT scan of the spine reveals scattered 0.4 to 1.2 cm bright lesions in the vertebral bodies.Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum prostate specific antigen of 35 microgram/l

      Explanation:

      Old age, persistent backache, weight loss, and osteosclerotic lesions make prostatic adenocarcinoma the most likely diagnosis. The sequelae include severe pain, pathological fractures, hypercalcemia and cord compression. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is detected by elevated levels of prostate specific antigen. Positive serology for borrelia burgdorferi would hint at Lyme disease which does not cause osteosclerotic bone lesions, neither would Neisseria gonorrhoeae have such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peristaltic movements of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter contracts preventing reflux of acid into the oesophagus. The sling muscles of the stomach, the crura of the diaphragm and the phreno-oesophageal ligament all play an important role in constricting the lower portion of the oesophagus and preventing reflux. Peristaltic movements do not stop the acid reflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are mainly ventral spinocerebellar tracts from the cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus

      Explanation:

      There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle.

      The superior cerebellar peduncle contains vital afferent and efferent fibers including cerebellothalamic, cerebellorubral and ventrospinocerebellar tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin act by way of which second messengers in the...

    Incorrect

    • Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin act by way of which second messengers in the release of acid by parietal cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A and D

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine, Histamine and Gastrin receptors are located on the basolateral membrane of the parietal cell and control its activity. Stimulation of these receptors modulates the levels of protein kinases in the cell and brings about the changes from a resting to stimulated structure. Protein kinase catalyses conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP which activates the proton pump. Calcium ions increase gastric acid secretion elicited by gastrin released through a vagal mechanism, and also by a direct effect on parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The parietal cells of the stomach secrete which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The parietal cells of the stomach secrete which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrochloric acid

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:- Acral dry gangrene- Carotenosis- Diabetic dermopathy- Diabetic bulla- Diabetic cheiroarthropathy- Malum perforans- Necrobiosis lipoidica- Limited joint mobility- Scleroderma- Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%. Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - The oesophagus is lined by ...

    Incorrect

    • The oesophagus is lined by

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium

      Explanation:

      The wall of the oesophagus from the lumen outwards consists of mucosa, submucosa (connective tissue), layers of muscle fibers between layers of fibrous tissue, and an outer layer of connective tissue. The mucosa is a stratified squamous epithelium of around three layers of squamous cells, which contrasts to the single layer of columnar cells of the stomach. The transition between these two types of epithelium is visible as a zig-zag line. Most of the muscle is smooth muscle although striated muscle predominates in its upper two thirds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and an associated limp. She has a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for which she completed treatment for last six months.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head is a pathological process that results from disruption of the blood supply to the bone and occurs most commonly in the femoral epiphysis. Patients usually present with pain and limited joint motion. The mechanism involves impaired circulation to a specific area that ultimately becomes necrotic. AVN is most frequently associated with high doses of oral and intravenous corticosteroids and prolonged duration of therapy. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy are usually also treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S

      Explanation:

      DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - What is the average life span of red blood cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of red blood cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/1) 100%
Medicine (4/6) 67%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
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