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  • Question 1 - A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one month history of vulval soreness and lumps. She smokes several packs of tobacco cigarettes a day. A biopsy confirms vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. What is her risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN) is a non-invasive squamous type lesion that carries a 15% chance of developing into squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, or chronic inflammatory conditions such as lichen sclerosis and lichen planus, can cause changes in the basal cells of the vulvar epithelium. Other risk factors of VIN include multiple sexual partners, cigarette smoking, and immunocompromised states. Diagnosis is by clinical examination and a biopsy confirms neoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: ERV

      Correct Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      FEV1 and FVC are unchanged. FEV1/FVC ratio remains the same in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately ...

    Correct

    • Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately

      Your Answer: 750ml/min

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Bulbospongiosus muscle

      Correct Answer: Proximal portion of urethra

      Explanation:

      The proximal portion of urethra in females or membranous urethra in males is in the deep perineal pouch

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering...

    Correct

    • You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated?

      Your Answer: CYP21A

      Explanation:

      CAH leads to virilization of the female foetus. It occurs to an enzyme deficiency (21-hydroxylase). This results in a reduced levels of corticosteroids from being circulated resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal glands and increased progesterone production. The CYP21A gene has been implicated in causes this deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Skin changes during pregnancy should include: ...

    Correct

    • Skin changes during pregnancy should include:

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Skin signs during pregnancy may include: dark spots on the breasts, nipples and inner thighs, melasma (chloasma), linea nigra, stretch marks, acne, spider telangiectasis and varicose veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which immunoglobulin is the first to be synthesised by the neonate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which immunoglobulin is the first to be synthesised by the neonate?

      Your Answer: IgD

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      Fetal production of immunoglobulin begins early on at about 10 weeks gestation with the production of IgM antibodies. Maternal IgG, which is a key component of fetal immunity is passed on to the foetus through the placenta from 12 weeks of gestation. Secretory IgA is not produced until after birth, through breast milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below:

      Pulse rate: 64 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C

      On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min.

      Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?

      Your Answer: A heavy show.

      Correct Answer: Placenta praevia.

      Explanation:

      In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.

      An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.

      In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.

      A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.

      Which is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section now.

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.

      Explanation:

      The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Correct

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.

      On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.

      Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.

      A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.

      Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption

      Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.

      The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The chance of multiple pregnancy increases: ...

    Incorrect

    • The chance of multiple pregnancy increases:

      Your Answer: With bromocriptine use for infertility treatment

      Correct Answer: With advancing maternal age

      Explanation:

      Dizygotic twin pregnancies are known to increase with age of the mother. Naturally conceived twins are thought to occur in a 0.3% rate in women under 25 years, 1.4% between 25 and 34, 3% between 34 and 39, and 4.1% in women in their 40s or over. We also know that at least 50% of all twin pregnancies are conceived through ART and that this proportion is probably higher for women in their 40s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You see a patient on the ward who is acutely short of breath...

    Correct

    • You see a patient on the ward who is acutely short of breath and perform an ABG. The results are as follows

      Your Answer: Respiratory Acidosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has acidosis as the pH is low <7.35 The pO2 is irrelevant. The pCO2 is raised i.e. the respiratory system is causing acidosis. The patient is acidotic so this is a respiratory acidosis The Base Excess is normal. You would typically expect the base excess to rise but metabolic compensation is slower than respiratory compensation so this picture may be seen acutely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following studies is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Case Control Studies

      Correct Answer: Cohort Study

      Explanation:

      Cohort studies are the most appropriate study design to study the prognosis of a disease. A group of patients with the same condition are chosen and their baseline information is taken. The group is then followed up over time to see which patients live or die.
      Case-control studies can also be useful where a group of individuals that have survived a condition are compared with cases of those who have died. Prognostic factors that distinguish the two groups are identified. This method, however, is limited by bias and the accuracy of medical information present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since the last 12 months.

      She has a history of primary infertility

      Of the hormone assays listed in the options, identify the assay that would indicate pregnancy if its result is significantly elevated.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum luteinising hormone {LH).

      Explanation:

      The levels of oestradiol (E2), progesterone, and prolactin (PRL) are all elevated during early pregnancy. However these elevations cannot be solely relied on to determine if pregnancy has occurred since increased levels of these hormones can also occur in pathologic states in non-pregnant women or, in some cases, even during menstrual cycles.

      The levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are suppressed in pregnancy because of the elevated E2 and progesterone levels.

      The correct answer is elevated levels of luteinising hormone (LH). This is because the beta sub-units of LH and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are almost identical and therefore, hCG is measured as LH in almost all LH assays (correct answer).

      The LH levels can be slightly raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome; however, it is unlikely that the levels would increase above 30 mIU/mL in this condition.

      The mid-cycle levels of LH can go up to 100-150 mIU/mL. If the levels are more than 200 mlU/mL, it usually indicates pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.

      Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
      Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.

      Further examination was done and her results were:
      Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
      Pulse is 112/min

      Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
      – baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
      – baseline FHR variability moderate
      – accelerations present or absent
      – late or variable decelerations absent
      – early decelerations present or absent

      The onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5 - 3.5

      Explanation:

      With the use of warfarin, strict control of the INR is compulsory. After mitral valve replacement the INR should ideally be kept between 2.5-3.5. If the Ball and Cage or the Tilting Disc is used as a prosthetic valve then the target INR is 3.5, for bi-leaflets the target INR is 3.0 and for biological valves the target INR is 2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A couple comes to your clinic because they haven't been able to conceive...

    Incorrect

    • A couple comes to your clinic because they haven't been able to conceive despite having had frequent sexual activity in the previous 12 months. The female partner is 35 years old and has regular menstrual cycles. The male partner is 38 years old and otherwise normal.

      Which of the following studies would you do next to forecast ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum progesterone

      Explanation:

      This patient has a regular and long menstrual period. The most crucial thing in this case is to rule out anovulation.
      Serum progesterone concentration is the best test for detecting ovulation.
      Ovulation has occurred if the level is greater than 20nmol/L.
      This test should be performed 3 to 10 days prior to the start of the next anticipated period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined...

    Incorrect

    • The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses

      Explanation:

      Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.

      There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.

      An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.

      Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In twin deliveries: Which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • In twin deliveries: Which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.coli is the most common cause of UTI. Other organisms include pseudomonas, proteus and klebsiella.

      NICE guidelines: UTI in pregnancy (updated in July 2015)

      Send urine for culture and sensitivity from all women in whom UTI is suspected before starting empirical antibiotics and 7 days after antibiotic treatment is completed.
      Prescribe an antibiotic to all women with suspected UTI (awaiting culture result is not advised)
      Although local antibiotic resistance needs to be taken into account the following is advised in terms of antibiotic selection:
      1. Nitrofurantoin 50 mg QDS (or 100 mg MR BD) for 7 days.
      2. Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily, for 7 days
      Give folic acid 5 mg OD if it is the 1st trimester
      Do not give trimethoprim if the woman is folate deficient, taking a folate antagonist, or has been treated with trimethoprim in the past year.
      3. Cefalexin 500 mg BD (or 250 mg 6qds) for 7 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol,...

    Incorrect

    • Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa.

      Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss

      Explanation:

      Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
      Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
      Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
      Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.

      Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists

      Explanation:

      Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.

      There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.

      The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.

      Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only vegetables.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate suggestion for folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be started on folic acid 0.5 mg per day

      Explanation:

      Folate has been in the news because of its connection with a type of birth defect called neural tube defect. Studies have shown that women who have infants with neural tube defects have lower intakes of folate and lower blood folate levels than other women. Folate is needed early in pregnancy (before many women know they are pregnant) for normal neural tube development.

      Many vegan foods including enriched bread, pasta, and cold cereal; dried beans; green leafy vegetables; and orange juice are good sources of folate. Vegan diets tend to be high in folate, however, to be on the safe side, women capable of becoming pregnant should take a supplement or use fortified foods that provide 400 micrograms of folate daily.

      For the above mentioned reasons, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are FALSE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are FALSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It crosses the Ureter posteriorly

      Explanation:

      The Uterine artery typically arises from the anterior branch of the internal iliac artery. It crosses the ureter ANTERIORLY. It is the primary source of arterial supply to the uterus and its branches anastomose with branches of the ovarian and vaginal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial gland proliferation

      Explanation:

      During follicular phase, there is an increase in gonadotrophin hormones and a proliferation of the endometrium occurs. The duration of the cycle depends upon the overall length of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone levels are increased in the luteal phase and not in follicular phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness and groin pain. You assess her and find the numb area is the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      This describes the sensory area supplied by the ilioinguinal nerve. This is a potential complication with pelvic surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.

      A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms.

      You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy.

      What is the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.

      Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.

      As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.

      If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.

      Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      The major constituents of breast milk are lactose, protein, fat and water. However, the composition of breast milk is not constant; early lactation differs from late lactation, one feed differs from the next, and the composition can even change
      during a feed. Artificial infant formulas cannot therefore be identical to breast milk. In addition to IgA, breast milk contains small amounts of IgM and IgG and other factors such as lactoferrin, macrophages, complement and lysozymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making a Joel Cohen incision where should this be placed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 cm above the symphysis pubis

      Explanation:

      The Joel Cohen incision is superior to the Pffannenstiel incision. It is a straight incision that is 3 cm below the line joining the anterior iliac spines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary Cartilaginous

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. The cartilaginous joints are divided further into primary and secondary joints. The primary joint is called the synchondrosis. It articulates with the pubis of the other side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a non pregnant state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The corpus luteum is formed from the granulosa cells of the mature follicle. The structure functions as a transient endocrine organ which secretes mainly progesterone with additional secretion of oestradiol and inhibin, which serve to suppress FSH levels. In the event of no pregnancy, the corpus luteum stops producing progesterone and degenerates into the corpus albicans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      MEDIAL umbilical ligament = remnant fetal umbilical arteries
      MEDIAN umbilical ligament = remnant of urachus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The lower part of the rectum is supplied by the middle rectal artery....

    Incorrect

    • The lower part of the rectum is supplied by the middle rectal artery. What is the middle rectal artery a branch of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The middle rectal artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle:
      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus
      Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius
      Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles
      Roof: Fascia Lata

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2B

      Explanation:

      This is stage 2B.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension 2 Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend. She got severe diarrhoea and vomiting after eating a hamburger at a local eatery while on the road. She has taken her pills as prescribed.

      What is your contraception advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use condoms for 7 days and continue usual pills

      Explanation:

      The CDC recommends that:
      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours Use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      All other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects...

    Incorrect

    • The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevate FSH

      Explanation:

      Remember patients with PCOS have elevated LH. COCPs suppress synthesis and secretion of FSH and the mid-cycle surge of LH, thus inhibiting the development of ovarian follicles and ovulation COCPs reduce hyperandrogenism as reduced LH secretion results in decreased ovarian synthesis of androgens. Furthermore they stimulate the liver to produce Sex Hormone Binding Globulin which leads to decreased circulating free androgens. Other mechanisms include reduction in adrenal androgen secretion and inhibition of peripheral conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone and binding of dihydrotestosterone to androgen receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Immediate delivery of the foetus is recommended at which fetal scalp pH? ...

    Incorrect

    • Immediate delivery of the foetus is recommended at which fetal scalp pH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.18

      Explanation:

      A pH value below than 7.18 indicates acidosis which can result in hypoxic brain injury. In order to prevent brain injury, immediate delivery of the foetus should be planned. The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spine is the anatomical landmark for assessing the station of the fetal head and also placing pudendal nerve blocks. (the pudendal nerve runs posterior to the ischial spine). The ischial spine can be palpated approximately 8cm into the vagina, at 4 and 8 o’clock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency department due to complaints of not feeling fetal movements since yesterday. Upon investigations, fetal demise was confirmed. Induced delivery was done and she gave birth to a dead foetus.

      Which of the following is least likely to reveal the cause of the fetal death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis of the mother

      Explanation:

      Stillbirth has many causes: intrapartum complications, hypertension, diabetes, infection, congenital and genetic abnormalities, placental dysfunction, and pregnancy continuing beyond forty weeks.

      In 5% of normal-appearing stillborns, a chromosomal abnormality will be detectable. With an autopsy and a chromosomal study, up to 35% of stillborns are found to have a major structural pathology, and 8% have abnormal chromosomes. After a complete evaluation, term stillbirth remains unexplained about 30% of the time. The chance of finding a cause is impacted by the age of the foetus, the experience of the caregiver, and the thoroughness of the exam. Chromosome testing for aneuploidy should be offered for all stillbirths to confirm or to seek a cause of the stillbirth. Genetic amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling before delivery offers the highest yield.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.

      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - The amniotic fluid volume peaks at around 900ml. At what gestation does the...

    Incorrect

    • The amniotic fluid volume peaks at around 900ml. At what gestation does the amniotic fluid reach its maximum volume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35 weeks

      Explanation:

      The amniotic fluid volume increases up to week 35 of gestation and then decreases from then to term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Sertoli cells contain receptors for FSH. In response to this Sertoli cells synthesize inhibin, androgen binding proteins and anti Mullerian hormone all which are connected to the reproduction cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm...

    Incorrect

    • During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm ulcerated, indurated lesion on her cervix. She was otherwise asymptomatic. Most likely cause would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      This lady is most likely suffering from primary syphilis. Since the chancre is asymptomatic, it is often only found on deep examination of the vulvo-vaginal mucosa. The chief organism causing syphilis is Treponema Pallidum which is a spirochete and one of the most widely distributed sexually transmitted infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome ...

    Incorrect

    • Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin (HBF) is the main haemoglobin type in the foetus and persists after birth for around 6 months. Fetal haemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two gamma subunits The alpha globulin chain is coded for by genes on Chromosome 16. Alpha Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome16 defects The beta and delta globulin chains are coded for by genes on Chromosome 11. Beta and Delta Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome 11 Defects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures for her overactive bladder, would like to consider Oxybutynin. She wants to know how common dry mouth is as a side effect, as her sister suffered from it on while on the same drug.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: approximately 1 in 10 patients

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence can be divided into two main aetiologies, stress incontinence, or overactive bladder. Conservative management include lifestyle interventions, controlling fluid intake, or bladder exercises. If conservative management is no longer efficient, then medications may be indicated. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic drug used in the treatment of urinary incontinence. As with other anticholinergic drugs, side effects include dry mouth, dry eyes, blurry vision and constipation. About 1 in 10 patients taking Oxybutynin will experience some of these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound? ...

    Incorrect

    • What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The ultrasound used a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.

      E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein ascends and enters the inferior vena cava and the left ovarian vein drains into the longer left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment.

      Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Incorrect

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women on combined oral contraceptive pills

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen- and progesterone-containing oral contraceptives inhibit LH, which suppresses the FSH and LH levels, preventing follicular development and ovulation. Combined pills suppress FSH and LH throughout the cycle, inhibit endometrial proliferation, and produce a scanty cervical mucus. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior or posterior fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum and may require additional manevours to release the shoulders after gentle downward traction has failed. The most common injury that can occur, is to the brachial plexus due to lateral flexion of the head during traction. This may cause a neurological disability, Erb’s Palsy ( injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus) in which there is a less than 10% chance that this injury would be permanent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void.  She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.”  When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. 

      Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 68 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 69 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 70 - A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.

      Explanation:

      Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
      The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
      If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining of some shortness of breath that is more intense with exertion and denies any chest pain. She is concerned as she has always been very athletic and is unable to maintain the same degree of exercise she was accustomed prior to becoming pregnant. Patient also informed she has no significant past medical history and is not on any medication.

      On physical examination, her pulse is 72 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. Cardiac examination is normal and her lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step to pursue in the workup of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation and physical examination findings are most consistent with physiologic dyspnea, which is common during pregnancy. This breathing difficulty which is due to an increase in the tidal volume of lung will present itself as an increased awareness of breathing and can occur as early as the end of first trimester. Any minute increase in the ventilation occurs during pregnancy can make patients feel as if they are hyperventilating and contribute to the feeling of dyspnea.

      Patient should be reassured and educated regarding these normal changes of pregnancy, also should be counselled to modify her exercise regimen accordingly to her changed tolerance.

      Systolic ejection murmurs are due to increased blood flow across the aortic and pulmonic valves which is a normal finding in a pregnancy. So there is no need for this patient to be referred to a cardiologist or to order an ECG.
      About 1 in 6400 pregnancies present with pulmonary embolism and there will be clinical evidence of DVT in many of these cases. Dyspnea, chest pain, apprehension, cough, hemoptysis, and tachycardia are the most common symptoms of PE and physical examination shows accentuated pulmonic closure sound, rales, or a friction rub. If there is a strong suspicion for PE, the patient should be followed up with a ventilation-perfusion scan, which will confirm PE if presented with large perfusion defects and ventilation mismatches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 72 - A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal.

      What is the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
      Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.

      Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 73 - The second stage of labour involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The second stage of labour involves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 74 - Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      It utilizes the IgG class of the antibody.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 75 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Incorrect

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 76 - A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.

    Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.

      Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications.

      She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour.

      What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.

      Explanation:

      In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.

      However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.

      A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.

      CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.

      Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.

      Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 77 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 78 - A 32 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional cyst

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of functional ovarian cyst is made when the cyst measures more than 3 cm and rarely grows more than 10 cm. It appears as a simple anechoic unilocular cyst on USS. It is usually asymptomatic. If it is symptomatic then laparoscopic cystectomy should be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
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  • Question 79 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 80 - A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.

      What would be the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.

      The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.

      The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.

      As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.

      Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.

      Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 81 - A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up. She is about 7-8 weeks pregnant and enquiries about antenatal screening tests as she is concerned that her baby might have chromosomal abnormalities.

      Among the following results, which would indicate further assessment for trisomy 21?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) in the first trimester of pregnancy is an indication to carry out further diagnostic testing for Down syndrome.

      Antenatal tests available for screening Down syndrome are divided into two types:
      – Screening tests includes maternal serum screening and ultrasound which are safe to conduct with relatively low predictive values.
      – Diagnostic tests like chorionic villous sampling and amniocentesis are confirmative but carries higher risk of miscarriage as 1 in 100 and 1 in 200 respectively.

      a) Serum screening tests for Down syndrome during first-trimester includes:
      1. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) will be decreased in case of Down syndrome.
      2. Free ß-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) will be increased in cases of Down syndrome.
      If these screening tests are combined with first-trimester ultrasound nuchal translucency, it is found to be more accurate than doing only one of these tests.

      b) Second-trimester serum screening tests for identifying Down syndrome:
      1.Alpha-fetoprotein will be decreased.
      2.Unconjugated oestriol will be decreased.
      3.Free ß-HCG will be increased
      4.Inhibin A will be increased.
      These tests combined with maternal age and ultrasound results will provide more accurate predictive values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 82 - In which situation would you prescribe COCs? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which situation would you prescribe COCs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 20 year old woman with blood pressure 135/80mmHg

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 83 - Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be given routinely following OASIS

      Explanation:

      After perineal repair, lactulose and a bulking agent should ideally be given for 5-10 days as well as broad spectrum antibiotics should be given that will cover all possible anaerobic bacteria. At 6-12 months a full evaluation should be done regarding the progress of healing. 60 to 80% of women are asymptomatic 12 months post delivery and external anal sphincter repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 84 - A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. What was the most likely infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CMV

      Explanation:

      TORCH infections are responsible for perinatal complications. CMV is the most common amongst them. Primary infection often produces no symptoms or mild non-specific flu-like symptoms in the mother. The diagnosis is often made after abnormalities are seen in the foetus on ultrasound scan. The main features seen in an affected foetus are FGR, microcephaly, ventriculomegaly, ascites or hydrops. Some foetuses which are infected may not show any features on ultrasound, but may later be found to have neurological damage such as blindness, deafness or developmental delay. The neonate can also be anaemic and thrombocytopenic, with hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice and a purpureal rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 86 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Automated reagent strip testing shows protein 1+. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the urine result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send urine for protein:creatinine ratio

      Explanation:

      For a diagnosis of Preeclampsia to be established, hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week should be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 87 - What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic. It is a bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis acting at the ribosomal level. Tetracycline binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing the binding of the aminoacidic charged T-RNA to the ribosome-mRNA complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 88 - Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The internal anal sphincter is innervated by the splanchnic nerves. Sympathetic nerve supply from the inferior hypogastric plexus (for contraction) and parasympathetic supply from nervi erigentes (for relaxation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 90 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.

      On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.

      Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 91 - The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester: ...

    Incorrect

    • The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteum

      Explanation:

      In early pregnancy Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum.. This organ is fundamental for pregnancy maintenance until the placenta (syncytiotrophoblast) takes over its function at the 7-9th week of gestation, just after the expression of major histocompatibility complex antigens is suppressed in extra-embryonic fetal tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 92 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 94 - Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 95 - You are consenting a patient for a diagnostic hysteroscopy. What is the approximate...

    Incorrect

    • You are consenting a patient for a diagnostic hysteroscopy. What is the approximate risk of uterine perforation in diagnostic hysteroscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.10%

      Explanation:

      The risk of uterine perforation is 0.1% during therapeutic hysteroscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 96 - In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal term foetus

      Explanation:

      Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 97 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 98 - Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient pyrexia occurring within 45 minutes of administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dinoprostone

      Explanation:

      Induction of Labour is produced by the infusion of PGF-2 alpha or PGE2. Dinoprostone is a PGE2 and is associated with transient pyrexia that resolved within 4-5 hours of stopping the use of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood volume slowly increases by 40-50%

      Explanation:

      Maternal blood volume expands during pregnancy to allow adequate perfusion of vital organs, including the placenta and foetus, and to anticipate blood loss associated with delivery. The rapid expansion of blood volume begins at 6–8 weeks gestation and plateaus at 32–34 weeks gestation. While there is some increase in intracellular water, the most marked expansion occurs in extracellular fluid volume, especially circulating plasma volume. This expanded extracellular fluid volume accounts for between 8 and 10 kg of the average maternal weight gain during pregnancy. Overall, total body water increases from 6.5 to 8.5 L by the end of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 100 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

    She is at 38 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

      She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour.

      On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated.

      Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.

      Explanation:

      A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.

      In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.

      Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.

      Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.

      Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/4) 25%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed